SSC CGL Examination MCQs with solutions

1. Who was the first known Gupta ruler ?

A

Sri Gupta

B

Chandragupta I

C

Ghatotkacha

D

Kumaragupta I

Ancient History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Sri Gupta (240–280) was a pre-imperial Gupta king in northern India and start of the Gupta dynasty. The first evidence of Sri Gupta comes from the writings of I-tsing around 690 CE who describes that the Poona copper inscription of Prabhavati Gupta, a daughter of Chandra Gupta, describes “Maharaja Sri-Gupta” as the founder of the Gupta dynasty

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2. Ashoka called the Third Buddhist Council at

A

Pataliputra

B

Magadha

C

Kalinga

D

Sarnath

Ancient History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Third Buddhist council was convened in about 250 BCE at Asokarama in Pataliputra, supposedly under the patronage of Emperor Asoka. The traditional reason for convening the Third Buddhist Council is reported to have been to rid the Sangha of corruption and bogus monks who held heretical views. It was presided over by the Elder Moggaliputta Tissa and one thousand monks participated in the Council.

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3. Where did the traveller Ibn Batuta come from ?

A

Morocco

B

Persia

C

Turkey

D

Central Asia

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Ibn Batuta was a Berber Muslim Moroccan explorer, known for his extensive travels, accounts of which were published in the Rihla (“Journey”). Over a period of thirty years, he visited most of the known Islamic world as well as many non-Muslim lands; his journeys including trips to North Africa, the Horn of Africa, West Africa, Southern Europe and Eastern Europe in the West, and to the Middle East, South Asia, Central Asia, Southeast Asia and China in the East, a distance surpassing threefold his near-contemporary Marco Polo. Ibn Batuta is considered one of the greatest travellers of all time.

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4. Which of the following languages was in vogue during Mughal period in the courts of India ?

A

French

B

Persian

C

Portugese

D

Arabic

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Although early Mughals spoke the Chagatai language and maintained some Turko-Mongol practices, they became essentially Persianized and transferred the Persian literary and high culture to India, thus forming the base for the Indo-Persian culture. Persian language became the lingua franca of the court and empire.

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5. The writer of Ram Charit Manas, Tulsidas, was related to which ruler ?

A

Chandragupta Maurya

B

Nawab Vajid Ali Sah

C

Harsha

D

Akbar

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Akbar and Tulsidas were contemporary. It was because of the close friendship between the two that Akbar ordered a firman that followers of Rama, Hanuman & other Hindus, should not be harassed in his kingdom. Abdur Rahim Khankhana, famous Muslim poet who was one of the Navaratnas (nine-gems) in the court of the Mughal emperor Akbar, was a personal friend of Tulsidas. The historian Vincent Smith, the author of a biography of Tulsida`s contemporary Akbar, called Tulsidas as the greatest man of his age in India and greater than even Akbar himself.

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6. The Lodi dynasty was founded by

A

Ibrahim Lodi

B

Sikandar Lodi

C

Bahlol Lodi

D

Khizr Khan

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Lodi Dynasty was a Pashtun dynasty that was the last dynasty to rule the Delhi Sultanate. The dynasty founded by Bahlul Lodi ruled from 1451 to 1526. The last ruler of this dynasty, Ibrahim Lodi was defeated and killed by Babur in the first Battle of Panipat on April 20, 1526.

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7. The Muslim adventurer who destroyed the Nalanda University was

A

Alla-ud-din Khilji

B

Muhammad-bin-Tughlak

C

Muhammad-bin-Bhaktiyar

D

Muhammad-bin-Quasim

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji was a Turkic military general of Qutb-ud-din Aybak. It is alleged by some writers that he was responsible for the destruction of Nalanda, which was an ancient Buddhist University in Bihar, India, nearby to the stronghold of Bihar. The main Persian source for this explains Khalji attacked the fortress unaware that it was a University.

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8. The first muslim women who ruled Northern India was

A

Razia Sultana

B

Mumtaz

C

Nurjahan

D

None of the above

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Razia Sultana was the Sultana of Delhi in India from 1236 to May 1240. She succeeded her father Shams-ud-din Iltutmish to the Sultanate of Delhi in 1236. Iltutmish became the first sultan to appoint a woman as his successor when he designated his daughter Razia as his heir apparent. Razia was the first and last women ruler of Delhi Sultanate.

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9. The first Europeans to come to India were

A

British

B

Dutch

C

French

D

Portugese

Indian History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The first European to land on the shores of India was a Portuguese sailor by the name of Vasco da Gama who, after sailing around Cape of Good Hope, landed on the Port of Calicut on the Malabar Coast of India in 1498 A.D. His subsequent expeditions led to the establishment of Portuguese settlements in India

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10. Permanent Revenue settlement of Bengal was introduced by :

A

Clive

B

Hastings

C

Wellesley

D

Cornwallis

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Permanent Settlement — also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal— was an agreement between the East India Company and Bengali landlords to fix revenues to be raised from land, with farreaching consequences for both agricultural methods and productivity in the entire Empire and the political realities of the Indian countryside. It was concluded in 1793, by the Company administration headed by Charles, Earl Cornwallis. It formed one part of a larger body of legislation enacted known as the Cornwallis Code.

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11. The father of extremist movement in India is :

A

Motilal Nehru

B

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

C

Vallabhbhai Patel

D

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Lokmanya Tilak, born as Keshav Gangadhar Tilak (23 July 1856 – 1 August 1920), was an Indian nationalist, journalist, teacher, social reformer, lawyer and independence fighter who was the first popular leader of the Indian Independence Movement. The British colonial authorities derogatorily called him “Father of the Indian unrest”. Tilak professed a different ethics from that of Gandhi and followed a trend of extremism and violence, which earned him the appellation of the father of Indian unrest. He advocated violence as the higher duty based on his interpretation of the Bhagavad-Gita (Song of the Lord).

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12. Through which principle or device did Gandhiji strive to bridge economic inequalities?

A

Abolition of machinery

B

Establishment of village industries

C

Trusteeship theory

D

None of the above

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Trusteeship is a socio-economic philosophy that was propounded by Mahatma Gandhi. It provides a means by which the wealthy people would be the trustees of trusts that looked after the welfare of the people in general. This concept was condemned by socialists as being in favor of the landlords, feudal princes and the capitalists. Gandhi believed that the rich people could be persuaded to part with their wealth to help the poor. The founder of the Tata group, JRD Tata was influenced by Gandhi’s idea of trusteeship. He developed his personal and professional life based on this idea.

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13. Mahatma Gandhi got his inspiration for Civil Disobedience from :

A

Tuoreau

B

Ruskin

C

Confucius

D

Tolstoy

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi got inspiration of Civil Disobedience by reading a book of David Thoreau who was an American author, poet, philosopher, abolitionist, naturalist, tax resister, development critic, surveyor, historian, and leading transcendentalist. He is best known for his book Walden, a reflection upon simple living in natural surroundings, and his essay Civil Disobedience, an argument for individual resistance to civil government in moral opposition to an unjust state. Thoreau`s philosophy of civil disobedience later influenced the political thoughts and actions of such notable figures as Leo Tolstoy, Mohandas Gandhi, and Martin Luther King, Jr

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14. The system of communal electorate in India was first introduced by :

A

Indian Council Act of 1892.

B

Minto-Morley reforms of 1909

C

Montagu-Chelmsford reforms of 1919

D

Government of India of 1935

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Indian Councils Act 1909, commonly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced the system of communal electorate in India. It provided that Indian Muslims be allotted reserved seats in the Municipal and District Boards, in the Provincial Councils and in the Imperial Legislature; that the number of reserved seats be in excess of their relative population (25 percent of the Indian population); and, that only Muslims should vote for candidates for the Muslim seats (‘separate electorates’). These concessions were a constant source of strife during 1909-47.

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15. Who represented India in the Second Round Table Conference?

A

Aruna Asaf Ali

B

Sucheta Kripalani

C

Sarojini Naidu

D

Kalpana Joshi

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact opened the way for Congress participation in this conference. Mahatma Gandhi was invited from India and attended as the sole official Congress representative accompanied by Sarojini Naidu and also Madan Mohan Malaviya, Ghanshyam Das Birla, Muhammad Iqbal, Sir Mirza Ismail Diwan of Mysore, S.K. Dutta and Sir Syed Ali Imam. Gandhi claimed that the Congress alone represented political India; that the Untouchables were Hindus and should not be treated as a “minority”; and that there should be no separate electorates or special safeguards for Muslims or other minorities. These claims were rejected by the other Indian participants.

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16. What was the ultimate goal of Mahatma Gandhi`s Salt Satyagraha?

A

repeal of Salt laws

B

curtailment of the Government`s power

C

economic relief to the common people

D

Purna Swaraj for India

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Salt Satyagraha started on March 12, 1930, with the undertaking of the Dandi Yatra (Dandi March). The triggering factor for this movement was the British monopoly of salt trade in India and the imposition of a salt tax. According to the contemporary British laws, the sale or production of salt by anyone but the British government was a criminal offense. The goals of the movement were to end the British monopoly on salt, decrease dependence on foreign cloth, reduce land revenue assessments, build unity among Hindus and Muslims of all economic and social classes, and ultimately end British colonial rule over India and declare Purna Swaraj (complete independence).

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17. Who persuaded the ratings of the RIN (Royal India Navy) to surrender on the 23rd February 1946?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

C

Vallabh Bhai Patel and M.A. Jinnah

D

Morarji Desai and J.B. Kripalani

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

In February 1946, the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) experienced a major mutiny, on a magnitude rare among modern navies. The Second Battalion of the Black watch was called from their barracks in Karachi to deal with this mutiny on Manora Island. Both Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Sardar Patel successfully persuaded the ratings to surrender. Patel wrote, “Discipline in the army cannot be tampered with. We will want the army even in free India”.

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18. On September 20, 1932 Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death in Yervada Jail against :

A

British repression of the Satyagrahis.

B

Violation of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

C

Communal award of Ramsay MacDonald.

D

Communal riots in Calcutta.

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

In 1932, a round table conference was organized and Ambedkar, an eminent lawyer and a Dalit leader was invited to attend the same. Through his campaigning, the government granted untouchables separate electorates under the new constitution. In protest Gandhi began a fast-unto-death while imprisoned in the Yerwada Central Jail of Pune in 1932 against the separate electorate for untouchables only. Ambedkar agreed under massive coercion from the supporters of Gandhi for an agreement, which saw Gandhi end his fast, while dropping the demand for separate electorates that was promised through the British Communal Award prior to Ambedkar`s meeting with Gandhi.

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19. In 1939, for the first time, Gandhiji tried out his specific techniques of controlled mass struggle in a native state. He allowed a close associate of his to lead a satyagraha. Who was he?

A

K. T. Bhashyam in Mysore

B

Jamnalal Bajaj in Jaipur

C

Vallabh Bhai Patel in Rajkot

D

Nebakrushna Chaudhri in Dhenkanal

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Gandhi was against Congress intervention in the affairs of Princely states. He at first showed “exceptional rigidity” (some very limited attempts at “controlled mass struggle”) in Rajkot, where there was little danger of agrarian radicalism.

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20. One time associate of Mahatma Gandhi, broke off from him and launched a radical movement called self-respect movement. Who was he ?

A

P. Thyagaraja Shetti

B

Chhatrapati Maharaj

C

E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

D

Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Self-Respect Movement is a movement with the aim of achieving a society where backward castes have equal human rights, and encouraging backward castes to have self-respect in the context of a caste based society that considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy. It was founded in 1925 by Periyar E. V. Ramasamy (also known as Periyar) in Tamil Nadu, India. Periyar was convinced that if man developed self respect, he would automatically develop individuality and would refuse to be led by the nose by schemers. One of his most known quotes on Self-Respect was, “we are fit to think of self-respect only when the notion of superior and inferior caste is banished from our land”

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21. The first attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through :

A

Indian Council Act, 1861

B

Indian Council Act, 1892

C

Indian Council Act, 1909

D

Government of India Act, 1919

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Indian Council act of 1909 also known as the Morley-Minto reforms named after the then Secretary of State for India, Lord Morley and the Viceroy Lord Minto. Its provisions were incorporated into the Indian Councils act of 1909 and were perhaps the first attempt at introducing a popular representative element in the government. In the provincial legislative councils, the number of non official members was increased, thereby reducing the official members to a minority. At the central legislative council however the official members still maintained their majority. The councils were given a little more power in the administration and could influence decisions on certain matters of the state.

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22. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of Hunger Strike as a weapon?

A

Non-Cooperation Movement, 1920-22

B

Rowlatt Satyagraha, 1919

C

Ahmedabad Strike, 1918

D

Bardoli Satyagraha

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi intervened in a dispute between the workers and mill-owners of Ahmedabad. He advised the workers to go on strike and to demand a 35 per cent increase in wages. But he insisted that the workers should not use violence against the employers during the strike. He undertook a fast unto death (first among the 17 such fasts) to strengthen the worker`s resolve to continue the strike. But his fast also put pressure on the mill-owners who relented on the fourth day and agreed to give the workers a 35 per cent increase in wages.

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23. Who led the Salt Satyagraha Movement with Gandhi?

A

Annie Besant

B

Mridula Sarabhai

C

Muthu Lakshmi

D

Sarojini Naidu

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Dandi march was undertaken by Gandhiji and about 78 of his followers, starting from Sabarmati Ashram near Ahmedabad. The Satyagrahis set out on foot, for the coastal village of Dandi, Gujarat, about 240 miles away. The walk lasted for 23 days and passed through 48 villages. The marchers were received with great enthusiasm and the support from the masses was very evident. During the course of the journey, thousands of Satyagrahis joined the walk, including leaders like Sarojini Naidu.

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24. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the :

A

Act of 1909

B

Act of 1919

C

Act of 1935

D

Act of 1947

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Government of India Act 1935, the voluminous and final constitutional effort at governing British India, articulated three major goals: establishing a loose federal structure, achieving provincial autonomy, and safeguarding minority interests through separate electorates. The federal provisions, intended to unite princely states and British India at the centre, were not implemented because of ambiguities in safeguarding the existing privileges of princes. In February 1937, however, provincial autonomy became a reality when elections were held.

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25. When was the first train steamed off in India ?

A

1848

B

1853

C

1875

D

1880

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Two new railway companies, Great Indian Peninsular Railway (GIPR) and East Indian Railway (EIR), were created in 1853-54 to construct and operate two experimental lines near Bombay and Calcutta respectively. The first train in India had become operational on 22 December, 1851 for localized hauling of canal construction material in Roorkee. A year and a half later, on 16 April, 1853, the first passenger train service was inaugurated between Bori Bunder in Bombay and Thane. Covering a distance of 34 kilometres, it was hauled by three locomotives, Sahib, Sindh, and Sultan.

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26. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?

A

British Constitution

B

US Constitution

C

Irish Constitution

D

The Government of India Act, 1935

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The most profound influence was exercised by the Government of India Act of 1935. Such features as the federal scheme, office of governor, power of federal judiciary, emergency powers etc were drawn from this Act. The British practice influenced the lawmaking procedures, rule of law, system of single citizenship, besides, of course, the model of a parliamentary government. The US Constitution inspired details on the independence of judiciary, judicial review, fundamental rights, and the removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges. The Irish Constitution was the source of the Directive Principles, method of Presidential elections, and the nomination of members of Rajya Sabha by the President

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27. Which one of the following libraries has the largest collection of manuscripts of historical value?

A

Khuda Baksh Oriental Public Library

B

Tanjavur Maharaja Serfoji Saraswati Mahal Library

C

Asiatic Society Library

D

Rampur Raza Library

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Library was opened to public in October, 1891 by Khan Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh with 4,000 manuscripts, of which he inherited 1,400 from his father Maulvi Mohammed Bakhsh. It is an autonomous organization under Ministry of Culture, Government of India, and is governed by a Board with the Governor of Bihar as its ex-officio Chairman. It is known for its rare collection of Persian and Arabic manuscripts. It also hosts paintings made during the Rajput and Mughal eras of India.

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28. How does the Constitution of India describe India as?

A

A federation of States and Union Territories

B

A Union of States

C

Bharatvarsh

D

A federated nation

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document. The Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens of justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity among them.

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29. In which of the following systems of land settlement adopted by the English did provide more protection to the interests of farmers ?

A

Permanent Settlement of Bengal

B

Ryotwari Settlement of Madras

C

Zamindari Settlement of Central States

D

Malgujari (land revenue) Setternent of United State

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Ryotwari system, instituted in some parts of British India, was one of the two main systems used to collect revenues from the cultivators of agricultural land. These revenues included undifferentiated land taxes and rents, which were collected simultaneously. Under the Ryotwari system, settlement of land revenue settlement was directly made between the government and the ryot, i.e., the cultivators or tenants. Moreover, in the ryotwari settlement the revenue was fixed for a period of thirty years, and not on a permanent basis as was in the case of the Permanent Settlement.

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30. The system of judicial review originated in:

A

India

B

Germany

C

Russia

D

U.S.A

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Judicial review is the doctrine under which legislative and executive actions are subject to review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary. It is an example of the separation of powers in a modern governmental system (where the judiciary is one of three branches of government). Is is one of the main characteristics of government in the Republic of the United States. In the United States, federal and state courts (at all levels, both appellate and trial) are able to review and declare the “constitutionality”, or agreement with the Constitution (or lack there of) of legislation that is relevant to any case properly within their jurisdiction. In American legal language, “judicial review” refers primarily to the adjudication of constitutionality of statutes, especially by the Supreme Court of the United States.

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31. Which of the following pairs contributed significantly to integrate the princely states into Indian Union ?

A

Sardar Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru

B

Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon

C

Sardar Patel and Mahatma Gandhi

D

Sardar Patel and K.M. Munsi

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

At the time of Indian independence, India was divided into two sets of territories, the first being the territories of “British India,” which were under the direct control of the India Office in London and the Governor-General of India, and the second being the “Princely states,” the territories over which the Crown had suzerainty, but which were under the control of their hereditary rulers. In addition, there were several colonial enclaves controlled by France and Portugal. The integration of these territories into Dominion of India, created by the Indian Independence Act 1947 by the British parliament, was a declared objective of the Indian National Congress, which the Government of India pursued over the years 1947 to 1949. Through a combination of tactics, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and V. P. Menon in the months immediately preceding and following the independence convinced the rulers of almost all of the hundreds of princely states to accede to India.

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32. When was first telegraph line started in India ?

A

1851

B

1875

C

1884

D

1900

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

In 1850, the first experimental electric telegraph line was started between Kolkata and Diamond Harbour. In 1851, it was opened for the use of the British East India Company. Subsequently, the construction of 6,400 km of telegraph lines connecting Kolkata (then Calcutta) and Peshawar in the north along with Agra, Mumbai (then Bombay) through Sindwa Ghats, and Chennai (then Madras) in the south, as well as Ootacamund and Bangalore was started in November 1853. William O’Shaughnessy, who pioneered the telegraph and telephone in India, belonged to the Public Works Department, and worked towards the development of telecom throughout this period.

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33. What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly of India ?

A

The Resolution of the Indian National Congress

B

The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

C

The Indian Independence Act, 1947

D

The resolutions of the Provincial/State Legislatures of the Dominion of India

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly was set up while India was still under British rule, following negotiations between Indian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India from the United Kingdom. The Assembly members were elected to it indirectly by the members of the individual provincial legislative assemblies, and initially included representatives for those provinces which came to form part of Pakistan, some of which are now within Bangladesh

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34. Which of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation ?

A

A single citizenship

B

Dual judiciary

C

Three Lists in the Constitution

D

A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

According to the Constitution of India, the role of the Supreme Court is that of a federal court and guardian of the Constitution. The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was established.

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35. The constitution of India describes India as

A

A Union of States

B

Quasi-federal

C

A federation of state and union territories

D

A Unitary State

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.

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36. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution ?

A

395

B

396

C

398

D

399

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

It is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world, containing 448 articles in 22 parts, 12 schedules and 100 amendments. Although the last article of the Constitution is Article 395, the total number, as of March 2012 is 448. New articles added through amendments have been inserted in the relevant location in the original constitution. In order not to disturb the original numbering, the new articles are inserted with alphanumberic enumerations. For example, Article 21A pertaining to Right to Education was inserted by the 86th Amendment Act.

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37. What did the Hunter Commission appointed by the Viceroy probe ?

A

Bardoli Satayagraha

B

Khilafat Agitation

C

Jallianwala Bagh tragedy

D

Chauri Chaura incident

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

On 14 October, 1919, after orders issued by the Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, the Government of India announced the formation of a committee of inquiry into the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Referred to as the Disorders Inquiry Committee, it was later more widely known as the Hunter Commission. It was named after the name of chairman, Lord William Hunter, former Solicitor-General for Scotland and Senator of the College of Justice in Scotland. The stated purpose of the commission was to “investigate the recent disturbances in Bombay, Delhi and Punjab, about their causes, and the measures taken to cope with them”

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38. Who was the Chairman of the Union Powers Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?

A

Sardar Vallabhbahi Patel

B

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

C

Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

D

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

On the 14 August, 1947 meeting of the Assembly, a proposal for forming various committees was presented. Such committees included a Committee on Fundamental Rights, the Union Powers Committee and Union Constitution Committee. The Union Powers Committee and the Union Constitution Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.

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39. From where did Acharya Vinoba Bhave start the Individual Satyagraha in 1940?

A

Nadiad in Gujarat

B

Pavnar in Maharashtra

C

Adyar in Tamil Nadu

D

Guntur in Andhra Pradesh

Modern History SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

In October, 1940, Gandhi selected Vinoba Bhave as the first Satyagrahi-civil resister-for the individual Satyagraha against the British, and Jawaharlal Nehru was the second. Gandhi personally went to Pavnar Ashram to seek his consent. After obtaining Vinoba’s consent, Gandhi issued a comprehensive statement on 5 October, 1940.

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40. The term ‘Caste’ was derived from

A

Portuguese

B

Dutch

C

German

D

English

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The English word “caste” derives from the Spanish and Portuguese casta, which the Oxford English Dictionary quotes John Minsheu’s Spanish dictionary (1599) to mean, “race, lineage, or breed.” When the Spanish colonized the New World, they used the word to mean a “clan or lineage.” However, it was the Portuguese who employed casta in the primary modern sense when they applied it to the many inmarrying hereditary Hindu social groups they encountered upon their arrival in India in 1498. The use of the spelling “caste,” with this latter meaning, is first attested to in English in 1613.

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41. The term “Greater India” denotes

A

Political unity

B

Cultural unity

C

Religious unity

D

Social unity

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Greater India was the historical extent of the culture of India beyond the Indian subcontinent. This particularly concerns the spread of Hinduism in Southeast Asia, introduced by the Indianized kingdoms of the 5th to 15th centuries, but may also refer to the spread of Buddhism from India to Central Asia and China by the Silk Road during the early centuries of the Common Era. To the west, Greater India overlaps with Greater Persia in the Hindu Kush and Pamir mountains. The term is tied to the geographic uncertainties surrounding the “Indies” during the Age of Exploration.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

42. The two forms of democracy are

A

Parliamentary and Presidential

B

Direct and Indirect

C

Monarchical and Republican

D

Parliamentary and King

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Parliamentary democracy is a representative democracy where government is appointed by representatives as opposed to a ‘presidential rule’ wherein the President is both head of state and the head of government and is elected by the voters. Under a parliamentary democracy, government is exercised by delegation to an executive ministry and subject to ongoing review, checks and balances by the legislative parliament elected by the people. Presidential Democracy is a system where the public elects the president through free and fair elections. The president serves as both the head of state and head of government controlling most of the executive powers. The president serves for a specific term and cannot exceed that amount of time.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

43. Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution ?

A

Right to Equality

B

Right against Exploitation

C

Right to Constitutional Remedies

D

Right to Freedom of Religion

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee, called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. Right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

44. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from

A

England

B

USA

C

Canada

D

France

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Indian Constitution borrowed such features as parliamentary form of government, introduction of Speaker and his role, the concept of single citizenship, the Rule of law, procedure of lawmaking, etc from England. The Indian citizenship and nationality law and the Constitution of India provide single citizenship for all of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

45. The Drafting of the Constitution was completed on :

A

26th January, 1950

B

26th December, 1949

C

26th November, 1949

D

30th November, 1949

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

A Draft Constitution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947. Draft constitution was debated and over 2000 amendments were moved over a period of two years. Finally on 26 November, 1949, the process was completed and Constituent assembly adopted the constitution. 284 members signed the document and the process of constitution making was complete.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

46. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

A

Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B

Sardar Patel

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The first temporary 2-day president of the Constituent Assembly was Dr Sachidanand Sinha. Later, Rajendra Prasad was elected president of the Constituent Assembly.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

47. The method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from

A

USA

B

UK

C

USSR

D

France

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Indian Constitution has borrowed some features from the U.S Constitution. Those features are: fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, The Indian Constitution has borrowed some features from the U.S Constitution. Those features are: fundamental rights, independence of judiciary.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

48. The Constitution of India describes the country as a

A

Union of States

B

Federation

C

Unitary State

D

Confederation

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Part I of the Constitution of India describes the nation that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. It also mentions that the states and the territories shall be specified in the First Schedule.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

49. The concept of Constitution first originated in

A

Switzerland

B

Britain

C

U.S.A

D

Japan

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

England is treated as the place where the constitutional concept germinated, though the ancient Greek and Roman Republics, too, had such a facility. In England, Henry I`s proclamation of the Charter of Liberties in 1100 bound the king for the first time in his treatment of the clergy and the nobility. This idea was extended and refined by the English barony when they forced King John to sign Magna Carta in 1215. The most important single article of the Magna Carta, related to "habeas corpus", provided that the king was not permitted to imprison, outlaw, exile or kill anyone at a whim—there must be due process of law first.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

50. The provisional President of the Constituent Assembly was

A

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

D

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected president of the Constituent Assembly while B.R. Ambedkar was appointed the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

51. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was

A

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C

Mahatma Gandhi

D

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

On the 14 August, 1947 meeting of the Assembly, a proposal for forming various committees was presented. Such committees included a Committee on Fundamental Rights, the Union Powers Committee and Union Constitution Committee. On 29 August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed, with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advisor.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

52. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

A

Dr. Br. Ambedkar

B

Jawaharlal Nehru

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Shri K. M. Munshi

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of Constituent Assembly on 11 December, 1946. On January 26, 1950, the Constitution of independent India was ratified.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

53. What is meant when the Constitution declares India a “Secular State” ?

A

Religious worship is not allowed

B

Religions are patronised by the State

C

The state regards religions as a private affairs of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis

D

none of these

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Secularism is the principle of separation of government institutions, and the persons mandated to represent the State, from religious institutions and religious dignitaries. India is a secular country as per the declaration in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. It prohibits discrimination against members of a particular religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Every person has the right to preach, practice and propagate any religion they choose. The government must not favour or discriminate against any religion. It must treat all religions with equal respect. All citizens, irrespective of their religious beliefs are equal in front of law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

54. Antyodaya Programme is associated with :

A

liberation of bonded labour

B

bringing up cultural revolution in India

C

demands of textile labourers

D

upliftment of the poorest of the poor

General Economics SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched on December 25, 2000 for one crore of the poorest families. It is an important milestone in providing foodgrains to the poor. It contemplated providing 25 kg. of foodgrains per month at highly subsidized rates of Rs. 2 per kg. for wheat and Rs. 3 per kg. for rice to each Antyodaya family. This scheme reflects the commitment of the Government of India to ensure food security for all, create a hunger free India in the next five years and to reform and improve the Public Distribution System so as to serve the poorest of the poor in rural and urban areas.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

55. The Indian economy can be most appropriately described as a :

A

Capitalist economy

B

Socialist economy

C

Traditional economy

D

Mixed economy

General Economics SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

There are primarily two types of economies capitalist or free market economy and socialist economy. Mixed economy is a median between these two main economies taking some characteristics of either of them. We have adopted mixed economy in India. All the basic industries such as railways, post and telegraph, defence production, atomic energy etc. are in the public sector. Industries dealing with consumer goods are in the private sector. India has a pubic private partnership economy

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

56. What is NABARD`s primary role?

A

to provide term loans to state co-operative banks

B

to assist state governments for share capital contribution

C

to act as re-finance institution

D

All of the above

General Economics SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

NABARD is the apex institution in the country which looks after the development of the cottage industry, small industry and village industry, and other rural industries. Its other functions are: to coordinate the rural financing activities of all institutions engaged in developmental work at the field level and maintain liaison with Government of India, State Governments, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and other national level institutions concerned with policy formulation; to re-finance the financial institutions which finances the rural sector; to regulate the cooperative banks and the RRB’s, etc. NABARD’s refinance is available to State Co-operative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks (SCARDBs), State Co-operative Banks (SCBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Commercial Banks (CBs) and other financial institutions approved by RBI.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

57. The concept of Sovereign Parliament originated in :

A

England

B

India

C

France

D

Japan

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The concept of Parliamentary sovereignty holds that the legislative body may change or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it is not bound by written law (in some cases, even a constitution) or by precedent. It is a principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Generally, the courts cannot overrule its legislation and no Parliament can pass laws that future Parliaments cannot change.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

58. Who is considered the Architect of the Indian Constitution ?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

B.R. Ambedkar

C

Jawahar Lal Nehru

D

B.N. Rao

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

B. R. Ambedkar was the chief architect of the Indian Consti-tution. Granville Austin has described the Indian Constitution drafted by Ambedkar as first and foremost a social document.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

59. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of

A

USA

B

Canada

C

Germany

D

Australia

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Constitution of India borrowed the following features from Australia: concurrent list; language of the preamble; and provisions regarding trade, commerce and intercourse.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

60. The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the

A

Preamble

B

Fundamental Duties

C

Fundamental Rights

D

Directive Principles of State Policy

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The mind and ideals of the framers of the Constitution are reflected in the Preamble.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

61. The symbol of Reserve Bank of India is

A

Capitol of Asokan Pillar

B

Kuber with a purse of money

C

Tiger before a Palm tree

D

A dog sitting in a defensive state

General Economics SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The logo of the Reserve Bank of India comprises a tiger walking underneath a palm tree. It is contended that the Reserve Bank of India copied the tiger and palm tree symbol from the gold Mohur issued by the East India Company in the 19th century. The double Mohur of William IV had a nice reverse, which was a symbol of Lion and a Palm tree. When RBI was created, it was decided that the reverse of Double Mohur, the Lion and Palm design should be used as the emblem of RBI. The last minute modification was made introducing Tiger instead of Lion

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

62. Indian Constitution is :

A

Federal

B

Quasi Federal

C

Unitary

D

Presidential

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Indian constitution which envisages parliamentary form of government is federal in structure with unitary features. Thus, it is quasi-federal.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

63. The famous Lagoon lake of India is :

A

Dal Lake

B

Chilka Lake

C

Pulicat Lake

D

Mansarover

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Chilka Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Oris- sa state on the east coast of India, at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal, cov- ering an area of over 1,100 sq. km. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and the second largest lagoon in the World. It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

64. Where is ‘Raisina Hills’?

A

Where Rashtrapati Bhavan is situated

B

The Hill feature in Srinagar, otherwise known as ‘Shan- kara-charya Hill’

C

The place where the Dogra rulers of J & K built their fort in Jammu.

D

The rock feature at Kanya- kumari where Swami Vive- kananda’s statue was erect- ed.

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Raisina Hill is an area of Lutyens’ Delhi, New Delhi, housing India’s most important government buildings, including Rashtrapati Bhavan, the official residence of the President of India and the Secre- tariat building housing the Prime Minister’s Office and several other important ministries. It is surround- ed by other important buildings and structures, in- cluding the Parliament of India, Rajpath, Vijay Chowk and India Gate.28) The term “Raisina Hill” was coined following acquisition of land from 300 families from X and Malcha villages. About 0.001 acres of land was acquired under the “1894 Land Acquisition Act” to begin the construction of the Viceroy’s House.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

65. Which of the following passes lies in the Sutlej valley ?

A

Nathu La

B

Jelep La

C

Shipki La

D

Sherabathanga

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. The river Sutlej enters India through this pass. It is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. It is located in Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, and Tibet Autonomous Region in People’s Republic of China. The pass is India’s third border post for trade with China after Nathu La in Sikkim, and Lipulekh in Uttarakhand. The pass is close to town of Khab.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

66. Where is Khyber Pass situated?

A

Bhutan

B

Bangladesh

C

India

D

Pakistan

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Khyber Pass is a 53-kilometer (33-miles) pas- sage through the Hindu Kush mountain range. It connects the northern frontier of Pakistan with Af- ghanistan. At its narrowest point, the pass is only 3 meters wide. On the north side of the Khyber Pass rise the towering, snow-covered mountains of the Hindu Kush. The Khyber Pass is one of the most famous mountain passes in the World. It is one of the most important passes between Afghanistan and Pakistan. It is the best land route between India and Pakistan and has had a long and often violent histo- ry. Conquering armies have used the Khyber as an entry point for their invasions. It was also been a major trade route for centuries.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

67. Where is Panzseer valley situated ?

A

Lebanon

B

Afghanistan

C

Jammu and Kashmir, India

D

Syria

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Panjshir Valley is a valley in north-central Afghanistan, 150 km north of Kabul, near the Hindu Kush mountain range. Located in the Panjshir Prov- ince it is divided by the Panjshir River. The valley is home to more than 140,000 people, including Af- ghanistan’s largest concentration of ethnic Tajiks. It literally means ‘Valley of the Five Lions.’

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

68. The piligrims of Kailash Mansarovar have to pass through which pass to enter into Tibet ?

A

Khardungala

B

Rohtang

C

Lipu likh

D

Nathu la

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Ti- bet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m above mean sea level, forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. The pass would be particularly useful for pilgrims visiting monasteries in Sikkim such as Rumtek, one of the holiest shrines in Buddhism. For Hindus, the pass reduces the journey time to Mansarovar Lake from fifteen to two days.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

69. Which one of the following river flows through a rift valley ?

A

Godavari

B

Narmada

C

Krishna

D

Mahanadi

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Narmada is the only river in India that flows in a rift valley, flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges. The Tapti River and Mahi River also flow through rift valleys, but between different rang- es. One theory is that the area in which the fossils are located, i.e., the Narmada Valley near Mandla, was actually a deep inundation of the sea into penin- sular India till the Post- Cambrian Tertiary age, about 40 million years ago. This means that Narmada was a very short river which terminated in the inland sea above Mandla, and that the recession of the sea caused geological disturbances, which created the present rift valley through which the Narmada River and Tapti River flow in their present journey to the Arabian Sea.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

70. Duncan Passage is located between:

A

South and Little Andaman

B

North and South Andaman

C

North and Middle Andaman

D

Andaman and Nicobar

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

SSC Combined Graduate Level Prelim Exam. 11.05.2003Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48 km (30 mi) wide; it separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) to the north and Lit- tle Andaman to the south. West of Duncan Passage is the Bay of Bengal; east is the Andaman Sea. Sev- eral small islands and islets lie along the passage.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

71. Constitution of India came into force in

A

1951

B

1956

C

1950

D

1946

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Constitution of India was adopted by Constituent Assembly on November 26,1949 and came into force on January 26,1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

72. The state possesses

A

only external sovereignty

B

only internal sovereignty

C

both internal and external sovereignty

D

neither external nor internal sovereignty

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

At its core, sovereignty is typically taken to mean the possession of absolute authority within a bounded territorial space. There is essentially an internal and external dimension of sovereignty. Internally, a sovereign government is a fixed authority with a settled population that possesses a monopoly on the use of force. It is the supreme authority within its territory. Externally, sovereignty is the entry ticket into the society of states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

73. India lies in the ................ hemisphere.

A

northern and eastern

B

southern and eastern

C

northern and western

D

northern and southern

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

India lies to the north of the equator, geographi- cally located at 28° 36.8` N and 77° 12.5` E in the northern hemisphere of the globe. India takes its standard time from the meridian of 82° 30` E, which is 5 ½ hours ahead of Greenwich Mean time (0 (zero) longitude).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

74. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on :

A

Simon Commission

B

Lord Curzon Commission

C

Dimitrov Thesis

D

Lord Clive`s report

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The provincial part of the Government of India Act, 1935 basically followed the recommendations of the Simon Commission. Simon Commission had proposed almost fully responsible government in the provinces. Under the 1935 Act, provincial dyarchy was abolished; i.e. all provincial portfolios were to be placed in charge of ministers enjoying the support of the provincial legislatures.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

75. Who described the Government of India Act, 1935 as a new charter of bondage ?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

Rajendra Prasad

C

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

D

B.R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

At the Faizpur Session of the Congress in December 1936, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, in his Presidential Address, referred to the Government of India Act 1935 as “The new Charter of Bondage” which was being imposed upon them despite complete rejection. He said that the Congress was going to the Legislatures to combat the Act and seek to end.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

76. Which of the following mountain ranges in India are the oldest?

A

Himalayas

B

Vindhyas

C

Aravalli

D

Sahyadri

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

) The Aravali Range (Aravali) literally meaning ‘line of peaks’, is a range of mountains in western India and eastern Pakistan running approximately 800 km from northwest to southwest across Indian states of Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat and Pakistani prov- inces of Punjab and Sindh. The Aravali range are the oldest fold mountains in India. The Aravali Range is the eroded stub of a range of ancient folded moun- tains. The range rose in a Precambrian event called the Aravali-Delhi orogeny. The range joins two of the ancient segments that make up the Indian craton, the Marwar segment to the northwest of the range, and the Bundelkhand segment to the southeast.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

77. Who is custodian of the Indian Constitution ?

A

President of India

B

Chief Justice of India

C

Prime Minister of India

D

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Constitution has made the Supreme Court as the custodian and protector of the Constitution. The Supreme Court decides disputes between the Centre and the Units as well as protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

78. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution ?

A

The Preamble

B

Part III

C

Part IV

D

Part I

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is Declaration of Independence statement & a brief introductory that sets out the guiding principles & purpose of the document as well as Indian democracy. It describes the state as a “sovereign democratic republic”. The first part of the preamble “We, the people of India” and, its last part “give to ourselves this Constitution” clearly indicate the democratic spirit.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

79. The state operates through :

A

Political Party

B

Party President

C

Government

D

President

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

A government is the system by which a state or community is governed. It is the means by which state policy is enforced, as well as the mechanism for determining the policy of the state. A form of Government refers to the set of political systems and institutions that make up the organisation of a specific government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

80. When was the first Central Legislative Assembly constituted ?

A

1922

B

1923

C

1921

D

1920

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Central Legislative Assembly was a legislature for India created by the Government of India Act 1919 from the former Imperial Legislative Council, implementing the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. It was formed in 1920.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

81. The Constitution of India, describes India as

A

A Federation

B

A quasi-federal

C

Unitary

D

Union of states

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Article 1 in the Constitution states that India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. The territory of India shall consist of: The territories of the states, The Union territories and any territory that may be acquired.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

82. The concept of “Rule of Law” is a special feature of constitutional system of

A

British

B

France

C

USA

D

Switzerland

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Rule of Law is an aspect of the British Constitution that has been emphasised by A V Dicey and it, therefore, can be considered an important part of British Politics. It involves: the rights of individuals are determined by legal rules and not the arbitrary behaviour of authorities; there can be no punishment unless a court decides there has been a breach of law; and everyone, regardless of your position in society, is subject to the law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

83. The method of amending the Constitution by popular veto is found in

A

Britain

B

Switzerland

C

Russia

D

India

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Switzerland has made provisions for referendums or popular votes on laws and constitutional decrees or issues on which citizens are asked to approve or reject by a yes or a no. The Swiss Federal Constitution 1891 permits a certain number of citizens to make a request to amend a constitutional article, or even to introduce a new article into the constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

84. The phrase “equality before law” used in Article-14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from

A

USA

B

Britain

C

Germany

D

Greece

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The concept of “equality before the law” has been borrowed from the British Common Law upon which English Legal System was founded. However, “equal protection of laws” has its link with the American Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

85. Which one of the following judgements stated that `Secularism` and `Federalism` are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?

A

Keshavananda Bharati case

B

S.R. Bommai case

C

Indira Sawhney case

D

Minerva Mills case

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

In the S.R. Bommai Case v. Union of India (1994), Justice Sawant and Kuldip Singh observed that federalism and secularism was an essential feature of our Constitution and were a part of basic structure. In this case, the Supreme Court discussed at length provisions of Article 356 of the Constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

86. Autocracy means ______

A

Rule by few

B

Rule by King

C

Absolute rule by one

D

Rule by the representatives of the People

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

An autocracy is a system of government in which supreme power is concentrated in the hands of one person, whose decisions are subject to neither external legal restraints nor regularized mechanisms of popular control. Both totalitarianism and military dictatorship are often identified with, but need not be, an autocracy.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

87. Constitutional Monarchy means :

A

The King writes the constitution

B

The King interprets the constitution

C

The King exercises power granted by constitution

D

The King is elected by the the people

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Constitutional monarchy is a form of government in which a king or queen acts as Head of State. The Sovereign/Monarch governs according to the constitution - that is, according to rules, rather than according to his or her own free will. The ability to make and pass legislation resides with an elected Parliament.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

88. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent Assembly first in 1935?

A

Nehru

B

Gandhi

C

J.P. Narayan

D

M. N. Roy

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The idea of Constituent assembly of India was first put forward by Manabendra Nath Roy or MN Roy in 1934. In 1935, it became the official demand of Indian National Congress. It was accepted in August 1940 in the August Offer; however, it was constituted under the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946. The constituent assembly drafted the constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

89. The Constitution __________.

A

is silent on the President`s re-election to the office.

B

allows re-election of a person to the President`s post

C

restricts a person to remain President for only two terms.

D

has been amended to allow a person only one term as President.

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

According to Article 57 of the Constitution, a President is eligible for re-election to that office. The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

90. Which type of democracy do we follow in India?

A

Direct

B

Presidential

C

Representative

D

Dictatorship

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

India follows representative democracy that is also known as indirect democracy. It is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected officials representing a group of people, as opposed to direct democracy. Simply put, a representative democracy is a system of government in which all eligible citizens vote on representatives to pass laws for them.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

91. Governance through trade union organizations is known as :

A

Guild Socialism

B

Fabian Socialism

C

Syndicalism

D

Liberalism

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Syndicalism is a type of economic system proposed as a replacement for capitalism and an alternative to state socialism, which uses Confederations of collectivized trade unions or industrial unions. It is a form of socialist economic corporatism that advocates interest aggregation of multiple non-competitive categorised units to negotiate and manage an economy. For adherents, labour unions are the potential means of both overcoming economic aristocracy and running society fairly in the interest of the majority, through union democracy. Industry in a syndicalist system would be run through cooperative confederations and mutual aid.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

92. Fabianism is closely related to:

A

Fascism

B

Scientific socialism

C

Democratic socialism

D

Liberalism

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Fabian Society is a British socialist organization whose purpose is to advance the principles of democratic socialism via gradualist and reformist, rather than revolutionary, means. It is best known for its initial ground-breaking work beginning late in the 19th century and continuing up to World War I. The society laid many of the foundations of the Labour Party and subsequently affected the policies of states emerging from the decolonization of the British Empire, especially India

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

93. The minimum number of workers who can form a Trade Union and get it registered under Trade Union Act ?

A

7

B

25

C

100

D

50

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

As per the Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 2001, no trade union of workmen shall be registered unless at least 10% or 100, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7 workmen engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which it is connected are the members of such trade union on the date of making of application for registration. It also states that a registered trade union of workmen shall at all times continue to have not less than 10% or 100 of the workmen, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7 persons engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which it is connected, as its members. So the minimum member required to start a trade union is 7, the only condition is they must have same problem in common.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

94. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by

A

Plato

B

John Locke

C

Rousseau

D

Austin

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

In Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s (1712–1778) definition of popular sovereignty, he considers the people to be the legitimate sovereign. He condemned the distinction between the origin and the exercise of sovereignty, a distinction upon which constitutional monarchy or representative democracy is founded.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

95. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was:

A

Nargis Dutt

B

Shabana Azmi

C

Madhubala

D

Meena Kumari

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Nargis Dutt, born Fatima Rashid but known by her screen name, Nargis, was an Indian film actress. In early 1970s, she became the first patron of Spastics Society of India, and her subsequent work with the organisation brought her recognition as a social worker, and later a Rajya Sabha nomination in 1980.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

96. Plural Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of

A

State

B

Religion

C

Individuals

D

Associations

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The pluralist theory of sovereignty is a reaction to monistic or legal theory of sovereignty. To monistic theory state is supreme association and all other associations are the creation of state and their existence depends on the will of the sovereign power. The pluralist theory rejects this and tries to establish that there is no single source of authority that is all competent and comprehensive. Pluralists believe that state enjoys a privileged position because of its wider jurisdiction, which covers all the individuals and associations within its boundary. The pluralist also rejects the distinction between state and government. An exponent of pluralist theory Robert M.Maclver propounds that state is one of the several human associations, although it exercises unique functions. Important feature of the state is supremacy of law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

97. How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Chakra depicted on the National Flag of India ?

A

16

B

20

C

24

D

32

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction of the Buddhist Dharma chakra, represented with 24 spokes. It is so called because it appears on a number of edicts of Ashoka, most prominent among which is the Lion Capital of Sarnath. The 12 out of 24 spokes represent the twelve casual links taught by The Buddha. These 12 in reverse represent a total 24 spokes representing the Life-The Dhamma (Pali).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

98. What is the colour of the “Dharma Chakra” in the middle of our national flag ?

A

Sea blue

B

Black

C

Navy blue

D

Green

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The most visible use of the Ashoka Chakra today is at the centre of the National flag of the Republic of India (adopted on 22 July 1947), where it is rendered in a Navy-blue colour on a White background, by replacing the symbol of Charkha (Spinning wheel) of the pre-independence versions of the flag.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

99. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good State and a bad citizen makes a bad State” ?

A

Plato

B

Rousseau

C

Aristole

D

Laski

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The state is a human institution. The population is, therefore, an essential element of the state. However, the population can constitute a state only when it is united by the conditions of interdependence, conscious-ness of common interest and general regard for a set of common rules of behaviour and institutions. In addition to the size of the population the quality of the population inhabiting the state is also equally important. Aristotle maintained that a good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

100. How many languages are contained in the VIIIth schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

A

18

B

22

C

16

D

12

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages. At the time the constitution was enacted, inclusion in this list meant that the language was entitled to representation on the Official Languages Commission, and that the language would be one of the bases that would be drawn upon to enrich Hindi, the official language of the Union. Via the 92nd Constitutional amendment 2003, 4 new languages – Bodo, Maithili, Dogri, and Santhali – were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

101. The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to

A

strengthen Panchayti Raj

B

strength Rural Institutes

C

strength urban Institutes

D

none of these

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 accorded the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) a constitutional status. The main features of the 73rd Amendment Act are the following: Constitution of a three tier structure of Panchayats in every state (at village, intermediate and district levels) having a population of twenty lakhs; Fixed tenure for Panchayat bodies (Article 243E); etc.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

102. Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of

A

the Council of Ministers

B

the Speaker of Lok Sabha

C

the President of India

D

the Cabinet Ministers

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Article 74 of the Constitution of the Republic of India provides for a Council of Ministers which shall aid the President in the exercise of his functions. Article 75 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

103. Under the writ of Habeas Corpus, the Court intervenes and asks the authority to provide the reasons for such detention. All proceedings under Article 226 are either civil or criminal. When a person asks for a writ of Habeas Corpus, that is a criminal proceeding. But when a person asks for any other writ than the Habeas Corpus, the proceedings are necessarily civil proceedings.

A

civil proceeding

B

criminal proceeding

C

Judicial proceeding

D

Statutory proceeding

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Under the writ of Habeas Corpus, the Court intervenes and asks the authority to provide the reasons for such detention. All proceedings under Article 226 are either civil or criminal. When a person asks for a writ of Habeas Corpus, that is a criminal proceeding. But when a person asks for any other writ than the Habeas Corpus, the proceedings are necessarily civil proceedings.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

104. According to Article 75 (3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the

A

President

B

Parliament

C

Lok Sabha

D

Rajya Sabha

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

According to Article 75 (3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

105. India has been described under Article-1 of the Constitution as a

A

Federation

B

Federation, with a strong unitary bias

C

Confederation

D

Union of States

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States; the sates and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule; and the territory of India shall comprise the territories of the States, the Union territories specified in the First Schedule; and such other territories as may be acquired.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

106. The two words that were inserted by the 42nd Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution are

A

Secular, Democratic

B

Sovereign, Democratic

C

Socialist, Secular

D

Secular, Republic

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, declared India to be a socialist and secular republic, and as securing fraternity assuring the unity "and integrity" of the Nation, by adding these words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

107. Article -1 of the Indian Constitution declares “India that is Bharat” is a:

A

Union of States

B

Federal State with Unitary features

C

Unitary State with federal features

D

Federal State

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Article 1 under Part I of the Constitution of India states that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.”

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

108. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external aggression or armed revolt through

A

Article 352

B

Article 356

C

Article 360

D

Article 368

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Under article 352 of Constitution, the President can declare such an emergency (caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion) only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

109. Which has become a legal right under 44th Amendment?

A

Right to Education

B

Right to Property

C

Right to Judicial remedies

D

Right to Work

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. However, in another part of the Constitution, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

110. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in the Supreme Court ?

A

323 A

B

329

C

343

D

343 K

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Central Administrative Tribunal was established in pursuance of Article 323-A of the Constitution. According to this article, the Parliament may by law exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts, except the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136 with respect to the disputes or complaints regarding the CAT.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

111. Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the “Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution”?

A

Article 14

B

Article 19

C

Article 370

D

Article 32

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. According to this right, a person can move the Supreme Court in case of violation of their fundamental rights. In the Constitution, this right is enshrined in Article 32.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

112. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

A

Article 33

B

Article 19

C

Article 21

D

Article 25

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Parliament may restrict the application of the Fundamental Rights to members of the Indian Armed Forces and the police, in order to ensure proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline, by a law made under Article 33.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

113. Which of the following article of IPC is related to unnatural sex ?

A

370

B

374

C

376

D

377

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Section 377 of Indian Penal Code (1860) deals with unnatural sex. As per this section, oral and anal sex have been treated as unnatural sex and made illegal in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

114. Which of the following cities/ towns lies to the northern-most latitude ?

A

Patna

B

Allahabad

C

Pachmarhi

D

Ahmedabad

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Patna is the capital of the Indian state of Bihar and the most populous city in Bihar. It is situated at latitudes of 25.6155° N, 85.1355° E.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

115. Which of the following will never get the vertical rays of the sun ?

A

Mumbai

B

Chennai

C

Thiruvanthapuram

D

Srinagar

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

All latitudes from 22.5 degrees North to 22.5 de- grees South of the equator receive vertical or direct rays twice every year as the tilted earth circles the sun. Tropic of Cancer is the determining line for find- ing out whether a city in India will get vertical rays of the Sun or not. Since Srinagar lies to the north of the Tropic of Cancer, it never gets the vertical rays of the Sun.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

116. The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by:

A

Ten Degree Channel

B

Great Channel

C

Bay of Bengal

D

Andaman Sea

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Channel is approximately 150 km wide, running essentially along an east-west orientation. It is so named as it lies on the 10-degree line of latitude, north of the equator.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

117. The Southern tip of India is :

A

Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)

B

Point Calimere

C

Indira Point in Nicobar Islands

D

Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Indira Point is the southernmost point of the Nicobar island lot located on the Great Nicobar Island. It was formerly known by various names including Pygmalion Point, Parsons Point, etc. The Indira Point Lighthouse was established in the year 1972 and since then it is working as a towering feature and as an important landmark for the ships coming from Malacca.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

118. Indian Standard Time relates to :

A

75.5° E longitude

B

82.5° E longitude

C

90.5° E longitude

D

0° longitude

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of 82.5° E longitude, from a clock tower in Mirzapur (25.15°N 82.58°E) (near Allahabad in the state of Uttar Pradesh) which is nearly on the corresponding longitude reference line.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

119. Which one of the following state has the longest coastline ?

A

Maharashtra

B

Tamil Nadu

C

Gujarat

D

Andhra Pradesh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Gujarat is spread across an area of 196077 sq. km. With a coastline stretching over 1290 kilometers along the Arabian Sea, Gujarat has the longest coastline among Indian states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

120. The pass located in Himachal Pradesh is :

A

Shipkila

B

Zojila

C

Nathula

D

Jelepla

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. The river Sutlej enters India through this pass. It is located in Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, and Tibet Autonomous Region in People’s Republic of China. The pass is India’s third border post for trade with China after Nathu La in Sikkim, and Lipulekh in Uttarakhand. The pass is close to town of Khab.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

121. The two richest Eco-zones of India are :

A

The Himalayas and Vindhyas

B

The Himalayas and Eastern Ghats

C

The Himalayas and Western Ghats

D

The Himalayas and Aravallis

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Himalayas and,the Western Ghats are known for rich biodiversity they support. Several species of eiidemic plant and animal are found in these zones. After Africa, Indian peninsula has the richest diversity of life forms on the face of the Earth.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

122. Which ot the following statements is correct ?

A

Mahadeo hills are in the west of Maikala hills.

B

Mahadeo hills are the part of Karnataka Plateau.

C

Mahadeo hills are in the east of Chhotahagpur Plateau

D

Mahadeo hills are the part of Aravalli ranges.

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh which form the central part of the Satpura Range. As evident from the map given below, they are situated to the west of Maikal Hills.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

123. Which hill station’s name means `place of the thunderbolt` ?

A

Gangtok

B

Shillong

C

Oottacamand

D

Darjeeling

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The name Darjeeling comes from the Tibetan word `dorje,` meaning the thunderbolt scepter of the Hindu deity Indra, and ling, a place or land. So it means `place of the thunderbolt.` Located in the Mahabharata Range or Lesser Himalaya, Darjeeling is situated in West Bengal.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

124. The plateau that has both West and East flowing drainage system is :

A

Malwa

B

Chota Nagpur

C

Ranchi

D

Hazaribagh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Malwa Plateau roughly forms a triangle based on the Vindhyan Hills, bounded by the Aravalli Range in the west and Madhya Bharat Pathar to the north and Bundelkhand to the east. It has two systems of drainage; one towards the Arabian sea (The Narmada, the Tapi and the Mahi), and the other towards the Bay of Bengal (Chambal and Betwa, joining the Yamuna).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

125. A tropical deciduous plant special to the Deccan plateau is :

A

Teak

B

Shisam

C

Sandalwood

D

Sal

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Teak, Sal, Sandalwood, Shisham and Mahua are some of the tropical deciduous trees that extend from the Shiwalik ranges in the north to the eastern flanks of the Western Ghats in the peninsular India. Among them, sandalwood is native to the Deccan plateau. The total extent of its distribution is approximately 9000 km2 of which 8200 km2 is located in the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. It grows particularly in Mysore and Coimbatore where it prefers hard rock, ferruginous soil—the conditions that produce a richer scent in the tree.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

126. The Himalayas are also known by the name :

A

ancient mountains

B

fold mountains

C

valley mountains

D

Indus mountains

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Himalayas are examples of fold mountains that are created where two or more of Earth`s tectonic plates are pushed together. The Himalayan mountain ranges were formed as result of a continental collision or orogeny along the convergent boundary between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. The Arakan Yoma highlands in Myanmar and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal were also formed as a result of this collision.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

127. Which river originates from the Amarkantak plateau?

A

Narmada river

B

Son river

C

Betwa river

D

Godavari river

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The source of the Narmada is a small bowl, known as the Narmada Kund, located at Amarkantak on the Amarkantak hill in the Anuppur District zone of eastern Madhya Pradesh.The river moves down from the Ama- rkantak range at the Kapildhara waterfalls and then flows in a rift valley between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

128. The outermost range of Himalaya is called :

A

Kali

B

Shiwalik

C

Dehradun

D

Kumaon

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Sivalik Hills is the outermost range of the Himalayas. Also known as Manak Parbat, it located in between the Great Plains and Lesser or Middle Himalayas. This range is about 2,400 km long en- closing an area that starts almost from the Indus and ends close to the Brahmaputra, with a gap of about 90 kilometres between the Teesta and Raidak rivers in Assam.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

129. Continuous chain of mountains that rise abruptly more or less parallel to the coastline of India is :

A

Aravalli

B

Satpura

C

Eastern ghats

D

Western ghats

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Western Ghats (also known as Sahyadri) is a continuous mountain range that runs parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula. It abruptly rises as a sheer wall to an average elevation of 1,000 m from the Western Coastal Plain. But, they slope gently on their eastern flank and hardly appear to be a mountain when viewed from the Deccan tableland. They are steep-sided, terraced, hills presenting a stepped topography facing the Arabian Sea coast.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

130. India shares longest international boundary with which country?

A

Bangladesh

B

China

C

Nepal

D

Bhutan

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Bangladesh and India share a 4,096-kilometer-long international border, the longest border that India shares with any country. It is fifth-longest land border in the world, including 262 km in Assam, 856 km in Tripu- ra, 180 km in Mizoram, 443 km in Meghalaya, and 2,217 km in Bengal. The border demarcates the six divisions of Bangladesh and the Indian states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

131. Where do the Western and Eastern Ghats meet?

A

Nilgiri hills

B

Cardamom hills

C

Palani hills

D

Annamalai hills

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Nilgiri Hills or the Blue mountains form the meeting point of the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats. These hills are part of the Western Ghats. They are separated from the Karnataka Plateau (north) by the Noyar River and from the Anaimalai and Palni hills (south) by the Palghat Gap.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

132. The longest sea beach in India is :

A

Chapora beach

B

Diu beach

C

Aksa beach

D

Marina beach

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Marina Beach, a natural urban beach in Chennai, is the longest beach of India with a length of 6.5 km. The beach runs from near Fort St. George in the north to Foreshore Estate in the south. It is the second longest beach in the world after Praia do Cassino beach of Brazil.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

133. The Andaman is separated from Nicobar by which water body?

A

11° channel

B

10° Channel

C

Palk Strait

D

Gulf of Mannar

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Little Andaman and Car Nicobar in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian Union Territory (UT) of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The channel is so named as it lies on the 10- degree line of latitude, north of the equator.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

134. The range that acts as watershed between India and Turkistan is :

A

Zaskar

B

Kailash

C

Karakoram

D

Ladakh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Great Karakoram range, also known as Krishnagiri, forms India’s frontiers with Afghanistan and China and acts as watershed between India and Turkestan. It extends eastwards from the Pamir for about 800 km. It is the northern most range of the Trans Himalayan ranges in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

135. The northern part of the west coast in India is known as :

A

Konkan coast

B

Coromandel coast

C

Malabar coast

D

Godavari Coast

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Konkan, also known as the Konkan Coast or Kokan, is the northern section of the western coast of India. It is a 720-km long coastline. It consists of the coastal districts of western Indian states of Karnataka, Goa, and Maharashtra. The Southern part of the western coast from Goa to Kanyakumari is called Malabar Coast.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

136. The mountain range which divides the North and the South India is :

A

Himalayas

B

Western ghats

C

Vindhyas

D

Satpura

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Vindhya Range is considered as the traditional boundary between North India and South India. It is a complex, discontinuous chain of mountain ridges, hill ranges, and plateau escarpments in west- central India. It runs north of and roughly parallel to the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh and extends up to Gujarat in the west, and Uttar Pradesh and Bihar in the east.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

137. Mount Abu is a hill station located in ____ ranges.

A

Vindhya

B

Satpuda

C

Aravalli

D

Sahyadri

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Mount Abu is a popular hill station in the Aravalli Range in Sirohi district of Rajasthan near the border with Gujarat. The mountain forms a distinct rocky plateau. The highest peak on the mountain is Guru Shikhar at 1,722 m above sea level. It is referred to as `an oasis in the desert` as its heights are home to rivers, lakes, waterfalls and evergreen forests.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

138. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the :

A

Yamuna canal

B

Sirhand canal

C

Indira Gandhi canal

D

Upper Bari Doab canal

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Canal is the largest canal project in India. It starts from the Harike Barrage at Sultanpur, a few kilometers below the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers in Punjab state. it provides irrigation facilities to the north-western region of Rajasthan, a part of the Thar Desert. It consists of the Rajasthan feeder canal (with the first 167 km in Punjab and Haryana and the remaining 37 km in Rajasthan) and 445 km of the Rajasthan main canal which is entirely within Rajasthan. This canal enters into Haryana from Punjab near Lohgarh village of Haryana, then running in western part of district Sirsa it enters into Rajasthan near Kharakhera village.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

139. Asia`s first underground Hydel Project is located in which of the following States in India?

A

Jammu & Kashmir

B

Himachal Pradesh

C

Arunachal Pradesh

D

Uttar Pradesh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The 1,500-MW Nathpa-Jhakri hydel project, one of Asia`s first mega project having an underground power station commissioned in 2003, is an hydel project in Himachal Pradesh. It supplies power to nine states, including Rajasthan, UP, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Delhi, Uttaranchal, Himachal Pradesh and Chandigarh. Bulit on Sutlej River, the project is being executed by Sutlej Jal Nigam (formerly Nathpa Jhakri Power Corporation). The 1500 MW hydro electric power project is situated in Kinnaur district, Himachal Pradesh.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

140. Which of the following is a river flowing from Central India and joining Yamuna/ Ganga?

A

Ghagra

B

Gomti

C

Kosi

D

Betwa

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Betwa is a river in Northern India, and a tributary of the Yamuna. Also known as the Vetravati, the Betwa rises in the Vindhya Range just north of Hoshangabad in Madhya Pradesh and flows north- east through Madhya Pradesh and flow through Orchha to Uttar Pradesh. Nearly one-half of its course, which is not navigable, runs over the Malwa Plateau before it breaks into the upland. A tributary of the Yamuna River, the confluence of the Betwa and the Yamuna Rivers takes place in the Hamirpur town in Uttar Pradesh, in the vicinity of Orchha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

141. Girna Project is situated in :

A

Andhra Pradesh

B

Maharashtra

C

Orissa

D

Chhattisgarh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Nandgaon is a city and a municipal council in Nashik district in the Indian state of Maharashtra.There are two important dams in Nandgaon taluka. One is Girana Dam under major project and another is Nagyasakya under medium project.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

142. The longest river of Peninsular India is :

A

Narmada

B

Godavari

C

Mahanadi

D

Cauvery

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Godavari is a river in the south-central India. It starts in the western state of Maharashtra and flows through the modern state of Andhra Pradesh before reaching the Bay of Bengal. It forms one of the largest river basins in India. With a length of 1465 km, it is the second longest river in India, second to The Ganges, and the longest in southern India. It origi- nates near Trimbak in Nashik District of Maharashtra state and flows east across the Deccan Plateau into the Bay of Bengal near Yanam and Antarvedi in East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

143. Which from the following rivers does NOT originate in Indian territory?

A

Godavari

B

Jhelum

C

Ravi

D

Ghaghara

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Karnali or Ghaghara River is a perennial transboundary river originating on the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Mansarovar. It cuts through the Himalayas in Nepal and joins the Sarda River at Brahmaghat in India. Together they form the Ghaghra River, a major left bank tributary of the Ganges. With a length of 507 kilometres (315 mi) it is the largest river in Nepal.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

144. Stability of the Government is assured in :

A

Parliamentary Form of Government.

B

Presidential Form of Government.

C

Plural Executive System

D

Direction Democracy

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The presidential system has several advantages. As the President is selected separately from the Legislature, the President and Executive branch are not subject (in most cases) to any form of vote of no confidence. As such, this leads to continuity in the Executive branch, as the Executive will remain stable over the term of the President. Besides, there is a clear demarcation between the Executive and the Legislative branch, allowing for a more effective set of checks-and-balances to be placed on both branches by the other.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

145. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within :

A

1 month

B

6 months

C

3 months

D

1 year

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Article 62 of the Indian Constitution says that An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy, and the person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of Article 56, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

146. In Indian Republic, the real executive authority rests with the :

A

Prime Minister

B

President

C

Bureaucrats

D

Council of Ministers

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The President is the constitutional head of Executive of the Union. Real executive power vests in a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as head. Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President who shall, in exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the House of the People.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

147. Parliamentary form of Government is also known as :

A

Responsive Government

B

Responsible Government

C

Federal Government

D

Presidential Government

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Responsible government is a conception of a system of government that embodies the principle of parliamentary accountability, the foundation of the Westminster system of parliamentary democracy. Governments (the equivalent of the executive branch) in Westminster democracies are responsible to parliament rather than to the monarch, or, in a colonial context, to the imperial government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

148. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?

A

Governors of States

B

Chief Justice and Judges of High Court

C

Vice-President

D

Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Vice President of India is the second-highest office in India, after the President. The Vice President is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting members of both houses of the Parliament. The Vice President would ascend to the Presidency upon the death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations leading to the vacancy in the Office of President.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

149. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?

A

within one month

B

within two months

C

within four months

D

within six months

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The President of India has the power to declare three types of emergency. They are National Emergency, State Emergency and Financial Emergency. A proclamation of National Emergency has to be passed in each house of Parliament by more than half of the total members and at least by two-third of the members present and voting. This proclamation will be invalid if it is not passed by both houses within one month. It has to be passed first by the Rajya Sabha if the Lok Sabha stands dissolved at the time of proclamation of National Emergency. It has to be passed within one month of Lok Sabha being reconstituted; otherwise the proclamation will be invalid.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

150. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within :

A

10 days

B

14 days

C

20 days

D

30 days

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

In the Westminster system (and, colloquially, in the United States), a money bill or supply bill is a bill that solely concerns taxation or government spending (also known as appropriation of money), as opposed to changes in public law. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of parliament, elected by the state and territorial legislatures or appointed by the president). The Rajya Sabha may not amend money bills but can recommend amendments. A money bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to have passed both houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

151. What can be the maximum interval between two Sessions of Parliament?

A

Three months

B

Four months

C

Six months

D

Nine months

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Under Article 85 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament from time to time and to dissolve the Lok Sabha. It is also provided that six months must not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the succeeding session. In other words, the interval between two sessions must not exceed six months.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

152. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in the case of

A

Money Bills

B

Non-money bills

C

Setting up of new All-India Services

D

Amendment of the Constitution

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Under the Constitution the Rajya Sabha is granted some powers exclusively. The Rajya Sabha, under Article 249, may by a special majority of two-thirds votes adopt a resolution asking the Parliament to make laws on subjects of the State list, in the national interest. Secondly, Rajya Sabha can take steps to create All India Services by adopting resolutions supported by special majority in the national interest. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two- third of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, to create one or more all- India services, Parliament by law may provide for such services. Thirdly, Rajya Sabha has the exclusive right to initiate a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

153. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha ?

A

The Chairman, Rajya Sabha

B

The President

C

The Joint-session of Parliament

D

none of these

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third Members of Rajya Sabha retire after every second year. A member who is elected for a full term serves for a period of six years.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

154. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right.

A

Right to privacy

B

Equality before law

C

Abolition of untouchability

D

Right to form associations or unions

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Judicial activism has brought the Right to Privacy within the realm of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court of India has construed “right to privacy” as a part of the Fundamental Right to “protection of life and personal liberty” under Article 21 of the Constitution, which states “no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedures established by law”. In the context of personal liberty, the Supreme Court has observed “those who feel called upon to deprive other persons of their personal liberty in the discharge of what they conceive to be their duty must strictly and scrupulously observe the forms and rules of the law”.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

155. Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

A

Public Accounts Committee

B

Estimates Committee

C

Committee on Public Undertakings

D

Committee on Government Assurances

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member after his election to the Committee, is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

156. The function of Protem Speaker is to

A

conduct the proceedings of the House in the presence of the Speaker

B

conduct the election in the House in the presence of the Speaker

C

conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker

D

check if the election certificates of members are in order

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most member of parliament is called protem speaker.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

157. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of :

A

Division of Powers between Centre and States

B

Centralisation of Powers

C

Balance of Powers

D

Separation of Powers

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

In democratic systems of governance based on the trias politica, a fundamental parallel and a fundamental difference exists between presidential systems and constitutional monarchic parliamentary system of government. The parallel is that the three branches of government (legislative, executive, judicial) exist largely independent of each other, with their own prerogatives, domains of activity, and exercises of control over each other. In presidential systems, the incumbent of the Head-of-state is elected to office and, after transfer of power, appoints his administration (like in the United States, with unitary executive) or a government headed by a prime minister is formed within the parliament, based on the elected majority (like in France). The latter might lead to a “cohabitation” where a president and his government belonging to different parties or coalitions.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

158. What is the maximum time interval permitted between two sessions of Parliament ?

A

4 months

B

6 months

C

8 months

D

9 months

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The period during which the House meets to conduct its business is called a session. The Constitution empowers the President to summon each House at such intervals that there should not be more than 6 month’s gap between the two sessions. Hence the Parliament must meet at least twice a year. In India, the parliament conducts three sessions each year.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

159. The item "Education" belongs to the :

A

Union List

B

State List

C

Concurrent List

D

Residuary Subjects

Polity SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The subjects defined and enlisted under the List-III of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, form the joint domain of both the State Governments and the Union territories of India as well as the Central Government of India under these subjects. This is known as Concurrent List. The practical importance of the Concurrent list, (when adopted in any federation) lies in the fact, that the vesting of the same type of power in two parallel agencies carries, within it, the seeds of a possible conflict. This implies, that the Constitution (of the country concerned) should provide, in advance, a mechanism for resolving such conflict. In India, article 254 of the Constitution primarily seeks to incorporate such a mechanism.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

160. Which river of India is called Vridha Ganga ?

A

Krishna

B

Godavari

C

Kaveri

D

Narmada

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Godavari (Vridha Ganga or Dakshina Ganga) is the largest river system of the peninsular India and rises near Nasik in Maharashtra. Godavari is considered the Dhakshin (Southern) Ganga and Draksharama Dhakshin Kasi.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

161. Which one of the following rivers of Peninsular India does not join Arabian Sea ?

A

Periyar

B

Cauvery

C

Narmada

D

Tapti

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Kaveri, also spelled Cauvery in English, is a large Indian river. The origin of the river is traditionally placed at Talakaveri, Kodagu in the Western Ghats in Karnataka, flows generally south and east through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and across the southern Deccan plateau through the southeastern lowlands, emptying into the Bay of Bengal through two principal mouths. Rising in southwestern Karnataka, it flows southeast some 800 km to enter the Bay of Bengal.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

162. The Loktak Lake on which a hydroelectric project was constructed is situated in the State of

A

Madhya Pradesh

B

Manipur

C

Meghalaya

D

Himachal Pradesh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in north- east India, also called the only Floating lake in the world due to the floating phumdis on it, is located near Moirang in Manipur state. The Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is the last natural refuge of the endangered sangai or Manipur browantlered deer, one of three subspecies of Eld`s Deer, covering an area of 40 km2, is situated in the southeastern shores of this lake and is the largest of all the phumdis in the lake. It serves as a source of water for hydropower generation, irrigation and drinking water supply.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

163. Which one of the following states does not form part of Narmada River basin?

A

Madhya Pradesh

B

Rajasthan

C

Gujarat

D

Maharashtra

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Narmada basin, hemmed between Vindhya and Satpura ranges, extends over an area of 98,796 km2 and lies between east longitudes 72 degrees 32` to 81 degrees 45` and north latitudes 21 degrees 20` to 23 degrees 45` lying on the northern extremity of the Deccan Plateau. The basin covers large areas in the states of Madhya Pradesh (86%), Gujarat (14%) and a comparatively smaller area (2%) in Maharashtra.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

164. Shivasamudram Falls is found in the course of river

A

Krishna

B

Godavari

C

Cauvery

D

Mahanadi

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Shivanasamudra Falls is on the Kaveri River after the river has wound its way through the rocks and ravines of the Deccan Plateau and drops off to form waterfalls. The island town of Shivanasamudra divides the river into twin waterfalls. This creates the fourth largest island in the rivers course. Asia`s second hydro-electric power station after Sidrapong is located at the waterfall and is still functional. This station was commissioned by the Diwan of Mysore, Sir K. Seshadri Iyer.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

165. River Indus originates from :

A

Hindukush range

B

Himalayan range

C

Karakoram range

D

Kailash range

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Indus is a major river which flows through Pakistan. It also has courses through western Tibet (in China) and Northern India. Originating in the Tibetan plateau in the vicinity of Lake Mansarovar, the river runs a course through the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, Gilgit, Baltistan and flows through Pakistan in a southerly direction along the entire length of Pakistan to merge into the Arabian Sea near the port city of Karachi in Sindh. The traditional source of the river is the Senge Khabab or `Lion’s Mouth`, a perennial spring, not far from the sacred Mount Kailash, and is marked by a long low line of Tibetan chortens.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

166. Which one of the following rivers of India does not make a delta ?

A

Ganges

B

Godavari

C

Mahanadi

D

Tapti

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Most of the west flowing rivers do not form delta. They form estuary. Examples are Narmada and Tapti.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

167. Guwahati is situated on the bank of the river

A

Teesta

B

Brahmaputra

C

Hooghly

D

Sone

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Guwahati — formerly known as Pragjyotishpura and Durjoya in ancient Assam, and Gauhati in the modern era — is an ancient urban area, the largest city of Assam, the largest metropolitan area in north- eastern , one of the fastest developing cities in India and often referred as “gateway” of the North East Region. It is also the third largest city in Eastern India after Kolkata and Patna respectively. The city is between the southern bank of the Brahmaputra river and the foothills of the Shillong plateau.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

168. Which river in India flows in a rift-valley?

A

Cauvery

B

Tapti

C

Narmada

D

Krishna

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Narmada is the only river in India that flows in a rift valley, flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya ranges. The Tapti River and Mahi River also flow through rift valleys, but between different ranges.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

169. Which of the following water bodies is not a freshwater resource ?

A

Jaisamand

B

Ganga river

C

Yamuna river

D

Chilika lake

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Fresh water is a renewable resource. River Ganges, Yamuna River and Jaisamand Lake come under this category. However, Chilka Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

170. Which river serves the largest cultivable area ?

A

Ganga

B

Saryu

C

Godavari

D

Krishna

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The entire Ganga basin system effectively drains eight states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

171. Which of the following river does not originate in Indian territory ?

A

Ganga

B

Mahanadi

C

Brahmaputra

D

Jhelum

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Brahmaputra also called Tsangpo-Brahmaputra, is a transboundary river. It originates in Tibet as the Yarlung Tsangpo River, from where it flows across southern Tibet to Arunachal Pradesh (India), where it is known as Dihang or Siang. It flows southwest through the Assam Valley as Brahmaputra and south through Bangladesh as the Jamuna.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

172. Which was the first hydel power project in India ?

A

Pallivasal in Kerala

B

Paikara in Tamil Nadu

C

Siva Samudram in Karnataka

D

Nizamnagar in Andhra Pradesh

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The 4.5 megawatt hydroelectric power station near Sivasamudram falls of the Cauvery in Karnataka was the first major power station in India. Owned by a few British companies, it was set up by General Electric of the US. It was commissioned in 1902. The first small hydro power plant, a 130 kilowatt plant, started functioning in 1897 at Darjeeling.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

173. Rajasthan canal receives water from which of the following rivers ?

A

Yamuna

B

Jhelum

C

Ravi

D

Sutlej

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Canal, earlier known as Rajasthan Canal, begins at the Harike Barrage—at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers in Punjab. One of the largest canal projects in India, it utilizes the surplus water from these rivers for irrigating vast areas in Rajasthan.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

174. Who among the following are involved with Cauvery River dispute ?

A

The Central Government and Karnataka

B

The Central Government and Tamil Nadu

C

Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

D

Karnataka,Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puduchery

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The sharing of waters of the Kaveri river has been the source of a serious conflict between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. The genesis of this conflict rests in two agreements in 1892 and 1924 between the erst- while Madras Presidency and Princely State of Mysore. Karnataka contends that it does not receive its due share of water from the river.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

175. The Siachin Glacier`s melting waters are the main source of which of the following rivers :

A

Beas

B

Sutlej

C

Shylok

D

Nubra

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Nubra River is a tributary of the River Shyok that originates from the Rimo Glacier, one of the tongues of Siachen Glacier. It flows through the Nu- bra valley in the northern part of Ladakh and then joins the Indus River in Skardu, Pakistan.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

176. What is Damodar Valley Corporation ?

A

Statutory body

B

Municipal Corporation looking after Damodar Valley

C

A private enterprise located in Bihar

D

A non government organisation

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC), having its head- quarters at Kolkata, is a statutory body created un- der the Damodar Valley Corporation Act, 1948. It op- erates several power stations in the Damodar River area of West Bengal and Jharkhand. The corporation operates both thermal power stations and hydel pow- er stations under the Union Ministry of Power.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

177. Which of the following is the largest irrigation plant in India?

A

Buckingham Canal

B

Indira Gandhi Canal

C

Upper Ganges Canal

D

Tajewala Canal

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in India and the largest irrigation project in the world. It starts from the Harike Barrage at Firozpur, a few ki- lometers below the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers in the Indian state of Punjab and terminates in irrigation facilities in the Thar Desert in the north west of Rajasthan. It was previously known as the Rajasthan Canal.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

178. The sideways erosion which widens the river valley called?

A

Lateral Corrosion

B

Vertical Corrosion

C

Side Corrosion

D

Mean Corrosion

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Sideways form of erosion is called lateral erosion. In lateral erosion, the river erodes away at its banks and widens the river channel. Together, vertical and lateral erosion create the distinctive V-shaped valley that is found in rivers in their upper course. As the river gets closer to the sea, there is more lateral ero- sion than vertical erosion and the V flattens out into a much wider shape.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

179. Punjab has a large number of inundation canals drawing water from

A

Jhelum river

B

Chenab river

C

Beas river

D

Sutlej river

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Punjab has large number of the Sutlej inundation canals, which are taken out from the rivers without any regulating system like weirs etc. at their head. Such canals provide irrigation mainly in the rainy sea- son when the river is in flood and there is excess water. Some of such inundation canals are Sirhind, Bhakra, etc.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

180. What is Dakshin Gangotri ?

A

River valley in Andhra Pradesh

B

Unmanned station located in Antarctica

C

Second source of River Ganga

D

Island in the Indian Ocean

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base sta- tion of India situated in Antarctica, part of the Indian Antarctic Program. Established during the third In- dian expedition to Antarctica in 1983–84, it was an unmanned station, set up using indigenous Indian equipment, powered by Solar energy. The station was entirely computerized to record all data that was re- searched.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

181. The region which is a water divide between the Ganga and Indus river systems is

A

Haridwar

B

Namchobarva

C

Alakananda

D

Ambala

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Any elevated area, such as a mountain or upland, that separates two drainage basins is known as water divide; for example, the water divide between the Indus and the Ganga river systems. Ambala is located on this water divide.Similarly, the Western Ghats form the main water divide in Peninsular India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

182. Which river in the Southern Peninsula has the second largest river basin in India?

A

Godavari

B

Krishna

C

Cauvery

D

Mahanadi

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

After the Ganga river basin, the Godavari River Basin has the second largest river basin with a drain- age area of 312,812 km2. In terms of length, catch- ment area and discharge, the Godavari river is the largest in peninsular India and had been dubbed as the `Dakshina Ganga` - the South Ganges river.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

183. If 20% or more area of the country suffers from rain deficits during monsoon season, it is termed as

A

flood year

B

drought year

C

famine year

D

self sufficient year

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

According to Indian Meteorological Department, when the rainfall deficiency for the country as a whole is more than 10% of normal and more than 20% of the country`s area is affected by drought conditions (rainfall deficit), the situation is defined as an all-India drought year.

Correct Answered :

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184. Why does the west coast of India receive more rainfall from southwest monsoon than the east coast?

A

Unlike the east coast this coast is straight

B

The Western Ghats obstruct the winds causing rainfall

C

The east coast is broader than the west coast

D

The Eastern Ghats extend parallel to wind direction

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The western side of the Western Ghats rise ma- jestically to over 2500 meters above mean sea level to capture the Arabian sea branch of moisture laden southwest monsoon winds. The location of these mountain ranges is such that the South-West Mon- soon that break over the southernmost tip of the pen- insula during the last week of May, block the winds and they steadily rise against the mountain to con- dense rapidly and give copious rains on the western side. Consequently, the eastern side is typically known as the rain shadow region.

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Wrong Answered :

185. Which of the following causes rainfall during winters in the north-western part of India ?

A

Western disturbances

B

Cyclonic depression

C

Southwest monsoon

D

Retreating monsoon

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

A Western Disturbance is an extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that brings sudden rain to the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent during the winter season. It is a non- monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies. Western Disturbances are important for the development of the Rabi crop (wheat).

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186. The Daily Weather Map of India is prepared and printed at

A

Kolkata

B

Mumbai

C

New Delhi

D

Pune

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Daily Weather Map of India is prepared and print- ed at the National Data Centre of India Meteorological Department (IMD) at Pune. Daily weather reports and daily weather maps for India in printed form are avail- able since 1878.

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187. What should be the proportion of forest cover for India to maintain her ecological balance?

A

11.1 percent

B

22.2 percent

C

33.3 percent

D

44.4 percent

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The minimum area of forests to maintain a good ecological balance has been regarded to be 33%. In- dia lags on this front. The Green India campaign has been announced by the Prime Minister for the affor- estation of 6 million hectares. The current area un- der forests is 23%.

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188. Where is the Bandipur National Park?

A

Rajasthan

B

Andhra Pradesh

C

Karnataka

D

Assam

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Bandipur National Park, established in 1973 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the south Indian state of Karnataka. It was once a private hunting reserve for the Maharaja of the Kingdom of Mysore. Bandipur is located in Gun- dlupet taluq of Chamarajanagar district. Together with the adjoining Nagarhole National Park, Mudumalai National Park and Wynad Wildlife Sanctuary, it is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve totaling 2,183 km2 making it the largest protected area in southern In- dia.

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189. Where is the Forest Research Institute located?

A

Dehradun

B

Bhopal

C

Lucknow

D

Delhi

General Geography SSC CGL VERIFIED
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Forest Research Institute is an institute of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education and is a premier institution in the field of forestry research in India. It is located at Dehradun in Uttarakhand, and is one of the oldest institutions of its kind. In 1991, it was declared a deemed university by the University Grants Commission. It was found ed in 1878, as the British Imperial Forest School, by Dietrich Brandis. In 1906, it was re-established as the `Imperial Forest Research Institute`, under the British Imperial Forestry Service.

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190. Which is the first national park established in India?

A

Velvadan National Park

B

Periyar National Park

C

Bandipur National Park

D

Corbett National Park

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India. The park—named for the hunter and conservationist Jim Corbett who played a key role in its establishment—was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park. Situated in Nainital district of Uttarakhand the park acts as a protected area for the endangered Bengal tiger of India, the secure survival of which is the main objective of Project Tiger, an Indian wildlife protection initiative.

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191. The Sundarbans or the `Man- grove` forests are found in

A

Kutch Peninsula

B

Western Ghats

C

Konkan Coast

D

Deltaic West Bengal

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Sundarbans is the largest single block of tidal halo- phytic mangrove forest in the world. The Sunder- bans is a UNESCO World Heritage Site covering parts of Bangladesh and India. This region is densely cov- ered by mangrove forests, and is one of the largest reserves for the Bengal tiger. The Sundarbans is in- tersected by a complex network of tidal waterways, mudflats and small islands of salt-tolerant mangrove forests. The mangrove-dominated Ganges Delta – the Sundarbans – is a complex ecosystem comprising one of the three largest single tracts of mangrove forests of the world. Situated mostly in Bangladesh, a small portion of it lies in India.

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192. Which of the following is called the “ecological hot spot of India”?

A

Western Ghats

B

Eastern Ghats

C

Western Himalayas

D

Eastern Himalayas

General Geography SSC CGL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

A biodiversity hotspot is a region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. More like rolling hills than snow-covered mountains, the Western Ghats - stretching some 1,600 km from the north of Mumbai to the southern tip of India - are a biodiversity hotspot that contains a large proportion of the country`s plant and animal species; many of which are only found here and nowhere else in the world. In the northern part of the range, about one-third of the plants, almost half the reptiles, and more than three-fourths of the amphibians known in India are found in this narrow strip of rainforest just off the west coast. The forests in the southwestern Ghats are even richer, hosting the country`s largest population of Asian elephants (Elephas maximus) as well as Bengal tigers (Panthera tigris tigris), lion-tailed macaques (Macaca silenus), sloth bears (Ursus ursinus), nilgiri tahrs (Hemitragus hylocrius) and much more.

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