SSC Section Officer Examination MCQs with solutions

1. Which was the only Indus site with an artificial brick dockyard?

A

Lothal

B

Kalibangan

C

Harappa

D

Mohenjo Daro

Ancient History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Lothal was one of the most prominent cities of the ancient Indus valley civilization. Located in Bhal region of the modern state of Gujarat and dating from 2400 BCE, it was discovered in 1954. Lothal was excavated from February 13, 1955 to May 19, 1960 by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). Lothal`s dock—the world’s earliest known, connected the city to an ancient course of the Sabarmati river on the trade route between Harappan cities in Sindh and the peninsula of Saurashtra when the surrounding Kutch desert of today was a part of the Arabian Sea.It was a vital and thriving trade centre in ancient times, with its trade of beads, gems and valuable orname

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2. Prince Ellara conquered Sri Lanka in the second century BC. With which of the following dynasties of Dravida ruler was he associated ?

A

Chera

B

Chola

C

Pandya

D

Pallava

Ancient History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

After the Kannauj Assembly was concluded, Hiuen-Tsang was making preparations to go to his home, but Harsha invited him to attend another Assembly at Prayag which he used to hold after ever five years on the confluence of Ganga and Yamuna. Five such assemblies had already taken place and this was the sixth Assembly in which Hiuen-Tsang was invited. This ceremony was attended by the kings of eighteen kingdoms and about 5, 00,000 people including Sramanas. Hercetics, Nigranthas, the poor, the orphans etc, attended this assembly. The Prayag Assembly is a glorious example of the generosity of Harshavardhana as he gave all his personal wealth and belongings in charity during the assembly.

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3. Where is Muslim mosque situated where a hair of pagamber Mohammad Saheb has been preserved ?

A

Ajmer

B

Ahmedabad

C

Srinagar

D

Mecca

Indian History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Hazratbal Shrine is a Muslim shrine in Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, India. It contains a relic believed by many Muslims of Kashmir to be a hair of the Islamic prophet Muhammad. The name of the shrine comes from the Arabic word Hazrat, meaning holy or majestic, and the Kashmiri word bal, (bal is a corrupted form of Sanskrit Vala which means an enclosure) meaning place

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4. Which is the correct chronolo-gical order of following Acharyas?

A

S h an k a r a – R a m a n u j a – Madhav–Chaitanya

B

Chaitanya–Ramanuj a– Madhav–Shankara

C

Ramanjua–Shankara–Chaitanya–Madhav

D

Madhav–Chaitanya–Ramanuja–Shankara

Indian History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Shankara (9th century)– Ramanuja (AD 1017-1137) Madhavacharya (AD 1238-1317)– Chaitanya (AD 1486- 1533) Adi Shankara was a 9th century reformer of Hinduism who is honored as Jagadguru, a title that was used earlier only to Lord Krishna. Ramanuja (traditionally 1017–1137) was a theologian, philosopher, and scriptural exegete. He is seen by Hindus in general as the leading expounder of Vishishtadvaita, one of the classical interpretations of the dominant Vedanta school of Hindu philosophy. Madhavacharya (1238– 1317), also known as Purna Prajna and Ananda Tirtha, was the chief proponent of Tattvavada “Philosophy of Reality”, popularly known as the Dvaita (dualism) school of Hindu philosophy. It is one of the three most influential Vedanta philosophies. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (AD 1486-1533) was a Vaishnava saint and social reformer in eastern India in the 16th century, worshipped by followers of Gaudiya Vaishnavism as the full incarnation of Lord Krishna

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5. The Dilwara temple at Mount Abu in Rajasthan were built by the followers of

A

Buddhism

B

Jainism

C

Hinduism

D

Sikhism

Indian History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Jain Dilwara temples of India are located about 2½ kilometers from Mount Abu, Rajasthan`s only hill station. These temples built by Chalukya between the 11th and 13th centuries AD are world famous for their stunning use of marble. The five legendary marble temples of Dilwara are a sacred pilgrimage place of the Jains. Some consider them to be one of the most beautiful Jain pilgrimage sites in the world

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6. The famous Kohinoor diamond was produced from one of the mines in

A

Orissa

B

Chhota Nagpur

C

Bijapur

D

Golconda

Indian History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Koh-i-Noor, meaning “Mountain of Light” in Persian language, also spelled Koh-i-noor, Kuh-e Nur or Koh-i-Nur, is a 105.6 metric carats diamond, weighing 21.6 grammes in the most recent cut state, and once the largest known diamond. The Koh-i Nur is believed by some to have originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh in India together with its double, the Darya-ye Noor (the “Sea of Light”). The diamond came from the Kollur mines, near the village Kollur in the present-day Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh in India

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7. The Khilji Sultans of Delhi were

A

Mongols

B

Afghans

C

Turks

D

A Jat tribe

Indian History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Khilji dynasty was a Muslim dynasty of Turkic Khalaj origin. The Khiljis ruled large parts of South Asia between 1290 and 1320. They were the second dynasty to rule the Delhi Sultanate of India. Led by their ruler, Ala-ud-din Khilji, they are noted for having repeatedly defended India against the Mongol invasions of India.

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8. When Mahatma Gandhi was arrested who among the following took over the leadership of Salt Satyagraha ?

A

Vinoba Bhave

B

Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

C

Abbas Tyabji

D

Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Abbas Tyabji was an Indian freedom fighter from Gujarat, who once served as the Chief Justice of the (Baroda) Gujarat High Court. Mahatma Gandhi appointed Tyabji, at age seventy-six, to replace him as leader of the Salt Satyagraha in May 1930 after Gandhi’s arrest. Tyabji was arrested soon afterward and imprisoned by the British Indian Government. Gandhi and others respectfully called Tyabji the “Grand Old Man of Gujarat”

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9. In which session of Congress the demand of “Poorna Swaraj” was accepted as the aim of the Congress ?

A

Calcutta

B

Madras

C

Nagpur

D

Lahore

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Purna Swaraj declaration, or Declaration of the Independence of India was promulgated by the Indian National Congress on January 26, 1930, resolving the Congress and Indian nationalists to fight for Purna Swaraj, or complete self-rule independent of the British Empire. A very large number of Congress volunteers and delegates, members of other political parties and an especially large public gathering attended the session convened in Lahore. At midnight on New Year`s Eve, President Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the tri-colour flag of India upon the banks of the Ravi river in Lahore, which later became part of Pakistan.

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10. Who was the leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha ?

A

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

C

Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

D

Acharya J. B. Kripalani

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of Gujarat, India during the period of the British Raj, was a major episode of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. Its success gave rise to Vallabhbhai Patel as one of the greatest leaders of the independence struggle. The background to this movement was provided in 1925 when the taluka of Bardoli in Gujarat suffered from floods and famine, causing crop production to suffer and leaving farmers facing great financial troubles. However, the Government of the Bombay Presidency had raised the tax rate by 30% that year, and despite petitions from civic groups, refused to cancel the rise in the face of the calamities.

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11. “Go back to Vedas.” This call given by

A

Ramakrishna Paramah-amsa

B

Vivekananda

C

Jyotiba Phule

D

Daynand Saraswati

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

One of the main messages of Swami Dayanand Saraswati was for Hindus to go back to the roots of their religion, which are the Vedas. By doing this, he felt that Hindus would be able to improve the depressive religious, social, political, and economic conditions prevailing in India in his times.

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12. Naokhali is situated in—

A

West Bengal

B

Bangladesh

C

Tripura

D

Bihar

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Noakhali is a district in South-eastern Bangladesh. It is located in the Chittagong Division. This place is remembered for the genocide in form of a series of massacres, rapes, abductions and forced conversions of Hindus and looting and arson of Hindu properties, perpetrated by the Muslim community in the districts of Noakhali and Tipperah in the Chittagong Division of Bengal in October–November 1946, a year before India’s independence from British rule. Gandhi camped in Noakhali for four months and toured the district in a mission to restore peace and communal harmony.

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13. Mahatma Gandhi was first arrested during Satyagrah in the year—

A

1906

B

1908

C

1913

D

1917

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Gandhi went to South Africa in 1893 but he was shocked to see racism, prejudice and inequality against Indian citizens in South Africa and he established the Natal Indian Congress in 1894 and formed an Indian community in South Africa. In 1906, the Transvaal government of South Africa promulgated a new Act compelling registration of the colony`s Indian population. At a mass protest meeting held in Johannesburg on 11 September that year, Gandhi adopted his still evolving methodology of Satyagraha (devotion to the truth), or non-violent protest, for the first time. In June 1907, he organized Satyagraha against compulsory registration of Asiatics (The Black Act). In 1908, Gandhiji had to stand trial for instigating the Satyagraha. He was sentenced to two months in jail (the first time), however after a compromise with General Smuts he was released.

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14. What was the basis of transfer of power to India on 15th August by ?

A

Congress had demanded “Poorna Swaraj”.

B

On this day Mahatma Gandhi started Quit India Movement.

C

Anniversary of formation of Interim Government

D

Anniversary of the surrender of Japanese army before Admiral Mountbatten

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

In Lord Mountbatten`s words, as told to Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre: “The date I chose came out of the blue. I chose it in reply to a question. I was determined to show I was master of the whole event. When they asked had we set a date, I knew it had to be soon. I hadn`t worked it out exactly then — I thought it had to be about August or September and I then went out to the 15th August. Why? Because it was the second anniversary of Japan`s surrender.

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15. Sati was prohibited by

A

Warren Hastings

B

Lord Wellesley

C

Lord William Bentinck

D

Lord Dalhousie

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Historically, efforts to prevent Sati by formal means were extent even before the Mughal rulers came to power. Under the Delhi Sultanates (circa 1325) permission had to be sought prior to any Sati. In their own sphere of influence the Portuguese, Dutch and French banned Sati but efforts to stamp out Sati were formalised only under Lord William Bentinck after 1829. William Cavendish Bentinck succeeded Lord Amherst as the Governor General of India. He took over the charge of Indian administration in the year 1828. Bentinck took effective steps to root out social evils like Sati and infanticide.

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16. The Simon Commission was formed to review

A

legislatures in India

B

fitness of India for further constitutional reforms

C

the position of the viceroy

D

a Constitution for India

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Indian Statutory Commission was a group of seven British Members of Parliament that had been dispatched to India in 1927 to study constitutional reform in Britain’s most important colonial dependency. It was commonly referred to as the Simon Commission after its chairman, Sir John Simon. The Indian national leaders had been continuously demanding constitutional reforms since 1919 when the Montague-Chelmsford Reform (1919) was introduced by the British government. Under the circumstances, in 1927 the British government in England formally constituted an enquiry commission to recommend further constitutional reform that may be introduced in India. It was meant to review constitutional progress so far and decide upon the future course.

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17. Preventive detention means–

A

detention for interrogation

B

detention after interrogation

C

detention without interrogation

D

detention for cognisable offence

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Preventive detention is an imprisonment that is putatively justified for non-punitive purposes. In contrast to this, under preventive detention the government can imprison a person for some time without a criminal charge. It means that if the government feels that a person being at liberty can be a threat to the law and order or the unity and integrity of the nation, it can detain or arrest that person to prevent him from doing this possible harm.

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18. From the Constitution of which country the provision of Federation was borrowed while framing the Constitution of India ?

A

USA

B

UK

C

Canada

D

Switzerland

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Though the basic features of Indian Constitution are based on the Government of India Act, 1935, it has many features which were borrowed from many foreign constitutions. It was from the Canadian Constitution that India borrowed a quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government) and the idea of Residual Powers.

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19. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946 ?

A

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B

K M Munshi

C

Mahatma Gandhi

D

Abul Kalam Azad

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. Some of its prominent members were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Acharya J.B. Kriplani, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Smt. Sarojini Naidu, Shri Hare-Krushna Mahatab, Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Shri Sarat Chandra Bose, Shri C. Rajagopalachari and Shri M. Asaf Ali.

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20. Which of the following countries has introduced “direct democracy”?

A

Russia

B

India

C

France

D

Switzerland

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Direct democracy is a form of democracy in which people vote on policy initiatives directly, as opposed to a representative democracy in which people vote for representatives who then vote on policy initiatives. Many countries that are representative democracies allow for three forms of political action that provide limited direct democracy: referendum (plebiscite), initiative, and recall. Referendums can include the ability to hold a binding vote on whether a given law should be rejected. This effectively grants the populace which holds suffrage a veto on a law adopted by the elected legislature (one nation to use this system is Switzerland).

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21. Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as Sarva Dharma Samabhav?

A

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

B

Dr. Zakir Hussain

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Gaini Zail Singh

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The slogan “Sarva Dharma Sama Bhava” was coined by Mahatma Gandhi in pursuit of his dream of HinduMuslim unity. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as Sarva Dharma Samabhav.

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22. Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?

A

U.S.A

B

UK

C

Pakistan

D

India

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

An uncodified or unwritten constitution is a type of constitution where the fundamental rules of government take the form of customs, usage, precedent and a variety of statutes and legal instruments. Current example of such a constitution is United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland where there is no defining document that can be termed “the constitution”. Because the political system evolved over time, rather than being changed suddenly in an event such as a revolution, it is continuously being defined by acts of Parliament and decisions of the Law Courts.

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23. The Constitution of India was adopted on

A

26 January, 1950

B

26 January, 1949

C

26 November, 1949

D

31 December, 1949

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Constitution was enacted/adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and came into effect on 26 January 1950. The date 26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of independence of 1930. With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document.

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24. The convention that “once a speaker always a speaker” is followed in

A

UK

B

USA

C

France

D

India

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The British Speaker is elected at the beginning of the Parliament by and from among the members of the House of Commons. If the Speaker of outgoing Parliament is still a member of the house and is willing to be re-elected, he can do so. usually, he is reelected as many times as he wants. A change of party does not make any difference. He is elected unanimously by the house. So in Great Britain there goes a saying, “Once a speaker always a speaker.”

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25. Indian Penal Code came into operation in

A

1858

B

1860

C

1859

D

1862

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Indian Penal Code is the main criminal code of India. It is a comprehensive code, intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law. It was drafted in 1860 and came into force in colonial India during the British Raj in 1862. It has since been amended several times and is now supplemented by other criminal provisions.

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26. When was the first passenger train run in India ?

A

January 1848

B

April 1853

C

May 1857

D

April 1852

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The first train in India had become operational on 22 December 1851 for localized hauling of canal construction material in Roorkee. A year and a half later, on 16 April 1853, the first passenger train service was inaugurated between Bori Bunder in Bombay and Thane. Covering a distance of 34 kilometres, it was hauled by three locomotives, Sahib, Sindh, and Sultan. This was soon followed by opening of the first passenger railway line in North India between Allahabad and Kanpur on March 3, 1859.

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27. Who designed the national flag of Independent India ?

A

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

B

Rabindranath Tagore

C

Mahatma Gandhi

D

Pingali Venkaiah

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The National flag of India is a horizontal rectangular tricolor flag, of India saffron, white and India green; with the Ashok Chakra, a 24-spoke wheel, in navy blue at its centre. It was adopted in its present form during a meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on 22 July 1947, when it became the official flag of the Dominion of India. The flag is based on the Swaraj flag, a flag of the Indian National Congress designed by Pingali Venkayya. During the National conference of Indian National Congress at Kakinada, Venkayya suggested that India should have a national flag of its own and Mahatma Gandhi liked this proposal. He suggested that Venkayya could come up with a design

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28. Which of the following European Colonisers did not have a settlement on the Eastern Coast of India ?

A

French

B

Portuguese

C

Dutch

D

Danish

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Eastern Coastal Plains refer to a wide stretch of landmass of India, lying between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal. These plains are wider and level as compared to the western coastal plains. It stretches from Tamil Nadu in the south to West Bengal in the north. Of all the foreigners who established themselves on the Malabar Coast the Danes were the least successful. There were several factors which brought to pass this eventuality. The limited resources of Denmark, with its inadequate manpower, were no match for those of their fellow traders like the Portuguese, the Dutch and the English.

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29. In which session of Indian National Congress the tricolour flag was unfurled for the first time ?

A

Calcutta Session, 1920

B

Annual Session of Congress at Nagpur, 1920

C

Lahore Congress, 1929

D

Haripura Congress Conference, 1938

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

On December 31, 1929, the newly adopted tricolour flag was unfurled at the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress. At this session, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru as the newly elected president spoke the following inspiring words: I have just unfurled the National Flag of Hindustan. What is the meaning of this flag? It is symbol of India`s unity. The flag under which you stand today and which you have just saluted does not belong to any particular section of society or community. It is the flag of the country. All those who stand today under this flag are Indians, not Hindus, not Muslims, but Indians. Re-member once again, now that this flag is unfurled, it must not be lowered so long as a single Indian, man, woman, or child lives in India.”

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30. Which among the following regulations made English as a medium of education compulsory in government aided schools and colleges ?

A

Pitts India Act, 1784

B

Educational Despatch, 1854

C

Macaulay Minute, 1835

D

Regulating Act, 1773

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Macaulay was Secretary to the Board of Control under Lord Grey from 1832 until 1833. After the passing of the Government of India Act 1833, he was appointed as the first Law Member of the GovernorGeneral’s Council. He went to India in 1834. He served on the Supreme Council of India between 1834 and 1838. He introduced English education in India through his famous minute of February 1835.

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31. During colonial period, British capital was mainly invested in :

A

Infra structure

B

Industry

C

Agriculture

D

Services

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Company rule in India brought a major change in the taxation and agricultural policies, which tended to promote commercialisation of agriculture with a focus on trade, resulting in decreased production of food crops, mass impoverishment and destitution of farmers, and in the short term, led to numerous famines. After the removal of international restrictions by the Charter of 1813, Indian trade expanded substantially and over the long term showed an upward trend. The result was a significant transfer of capital from India to England, which, due to the colonial policies of the British, led to a massive drain of revenue rather than any systematic effort at modernisation of the domestic economy

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32. M. A. Jinnah, in his early political life–

A

supported two nation theory

B

initiated Hindu-Muslim unity

C

imagined Pakistan as an independent State

D

was a communalist

Modern History SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Jinnah rose to prominence in the Indian National Congress (Congress) in the first two decades of the 20th century, initially advocating Hindu-Muslim unity and helping to shape the 1916 Lucknow Pact between the Muslim League and the Indian National Congress. Jinnah also became a key leader in the All India Home Rule League, and proposed a fourteen-point constitutional reform plan to safeguard the political rights of Muslims should a united British India become independent.

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33. The decimal system of Indian currency was started in

A

1950

B

1955

C

1957

D

1960

General Economics SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

India became independent on 15 August 1947 and was left with a legacy of non-decimal coinage. One rupee was divided into 16 annas or 64 pice, with each anna therefore equal to 4 pice. In 1957, India shifted to the decimal system, but for a short period both decimal and non-decimal coins were in circulation. To distinguish between the two pice, the coins minted between 1957 and 1964 have the legend “Naya Paisa” (“new” paisa). The denominations in circulation were 1, 2, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50 (naya paise and one rupee which remained as the same pre-decimal value. Therefore pre-decimal coins of one, half and quarter rupees could remain in circulation after decimalisation. The rupee remained unchanged in value and nomenclature. It, however, was now divided into 100 paisa instead of 16 annas or 64 pice. For public recognition, the new decimal paisa was termed ‘Naya Paisa’ till 1 June 1964 when the term Naya was dropped.

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34. Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?

A

Public Accounts Committee

B

Union Ministry of Finance

C

Finance Commission

D

Inter-State Council

General Economics SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Finance Commission of India is established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India to define the financial relations between the centre and the state. It is entrusted with the task of distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Centre and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes; determine factors governing Grants-in Aid to the states and the magnitude of the same; and work with the State Finance Commissions and suggest measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of the States so as to provide additional resources to Panchayats and Municipalities in the state.

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35. Where are the Saltora Ranges located ?

A

Ladakh

B

Along the Vindhyas

C

Part of the Karakoram Ranges

D

Part of the Western Ghats

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Siachen is a glacier 76-km in length with a width of 2 km to 8 km, between two ranges - Karakoram in the east and Saltora in the west. Starting from point NJ9842 in the South, the glacier runs in a north western direction flanking several towns in POK close to the Saltora range, and in a north eastern direction it extends up to the Karakoram pass, thus forming more or less a triangular shape.

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36. The Indian Sub-continent was originally a part of

A

Jurassic-land

B

Angara-land

C

Arya-varta

D

Gondwana-land

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Indian subcontinent is a southerly region of Asia, mostly situated on the Indian Plate and projecting southward into the Indian Ocean. In paleogeography, Gondwana, originally Gondwanaland was the southernmost of two supercontinents that were part of the Pangaea supercontinent. It existed from approximately 510 to 180 million years ago. Gond- wana included most of the landmasses in today’s Southern Hemisphere, including Antarctica, South America, Africa, Madagascar and the Australian continent, as well as the Arabian Peninsula and the Indian subcontinent, which have now moved entirely into the Northern Hemisphere.

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37. Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in

A

Purvanchal Ranges

B

Karakoram Ranges

C

Zaskar Ranges

D

Himalaya Ranges

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Purvanchal Range is an eastward extension of the Himalayas in the north-eastern region of India. It comprises the Patkai hills, the Manipur hills, Bairal range, the Mizo hills and the Naga Hills. It is a densely forested area, mainly composed of strong sandstones. The peaks in the Purvanchal mountain range are not rugged or high. The ideal route to this mountain range is offered by the Pangsau Pass.

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38. Which one of the following mountain ranges lies in India?

A

Arakan Yoma

B

Sulainian

C

Salt Range

D

Pir Panjal

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Pir Panjal Range is a group of mountains that lie in the Inner Himalayan region, running from east southeast to west northwest across the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh and the disputed territories comprising Indian-administered Jammu and Kashmir and Pakistan-administered Azad Kashmir, where the average elevation varies from 1,400 m to 4,100 m. The Himalayas show a gradual elevation towards the Dhauldhar and Pir Panjal ranges. Pir Panjal is the largest range of the lower Himalayas. Near the bank of the Sutlej River, it dissociates itself from the Himalayas and forms a divide between the rivers Beas and Ravi on one side and the Chenab on the other.

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39. Which one among the following is the highest peak ?

A

Kamet

B

Kun Lun

C

Nanga Parbat

D

Nanda Devi

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Nanda Devi, at 7817m, is the highest peak of India, if we discount Kanchenjunga (8598m), which is partially in Nepal. Till 18th century it was the highest peak known to mankind. The Nanda Devi National Park around Nanda Devi along with the Valley of Flowers are inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

40. Nathu La, a place where India- China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in

A

Sikkim

B

Arunachal Pradesh

C

Himachal Pradesh

D

Jammu and Kashmir

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m above mean sea level, forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. On the Indian side, the pass is 54 km east of Gangtok, the capital of Indian state of Sikkim on JN Marg and only citizens of India can visit the pass, that too after obtaining a permit in Gangtok. Nathu La is one of the three open trading border posts between China and India; the other two are Shipkila in Himachal Pradesh and Lipulekh (or Lipulech) in Uttarakhand

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Wrong Answered :

41. From which historical work were the words “Satyameva Jayate” appearing under the national emblem taken ?

A

Bhagawad Gita

B

Rig Veda

C

Ramayana

D

Mundaka Upanishad

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Satyameva Jayate (Truth alone Triumphs) is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Upon independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. It is inscribed in Devanagari script at the base of the national emblem. The emblem and words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ are inscribed on one side of all Indian currency. The emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka which was erected around 250 BC at Sarnath, near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.

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Wrong Answered :

42. Which of the following is the biggest head of non-plan expenditure of Government of India ?

A

Interest payments

B

Subsidies

C

Defence

D

Salaries and Wages

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The central government expenditure itself is divided into two parts –plan expenditure and non-plan expenditure. Non Plan Expenditure is money that’s spent on sustaining the country like defense, postal deficit, subsidies etc. and Plan Expenditure is the money that is spent on improving the country like the money spent on dams, roads etc. Interest Payments and Debt Servicing comprise more than 30 per cent of this expenditure.

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Wrong Answered :

43. What is the motto inscribed under our national emblem ?

A

Satyam, Shivam

B

Satyam, Sarvatra, Sundaram

C

Satyameva Jayate

D

Jai Hind

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Satyameva Jayate is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Upon independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. The motto of the Czech Republic and its predecessor Czechoslovakia, “Pravda vitezi” (“Truth Prevails”) has a similar meaning.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

44. Despotism is possible in a

A

One Party state

B

Two Party state

C

Multi Party state

D

Two and Multi Party state

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Despotism is a form of government in which a single entity rules with absolute power. That entity may be an individual, as in an autocracy, or it may be a group. In its classical form, despotism is a state in which a single individual (the despot) wields all the power and authority embodying the state, and everyone else is a subsidiary person. This form of despotism was common in the first forms of statehood and civilization; the Pharaoh of Egypt is exemplary of the classical despot. Colloquially, despot has been applied pejoratively to a person, particularly a head of state or government, who abuses their power and authority to oppress their people, subjects or subordinates. In this sense, it is similar to the pejorative connotations that have likewise arisen with the term tyrant

Correct Answered :

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45. A law can be enacted, or executive order issued, even contrary to Article 19, during proclamation of emergency

A

caused by war or external aggression

B

caused by internal armed rebellion

C

caused by constitutional breakdown

D

caused by financial crisis

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Article 358 protects both legislative and executive action taken after the proclamation of emergency. National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi to escape conviction). In such an emergency, Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended. However, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original Constitution. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.

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46. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was for the first time amended by the

A

24th Amendment

B

42nd Amendment

C

44th Amendment

D

none of these

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document. As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a “sovereign democratic republic”. In 1976 the Forty-second Amendment changed this to read “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”.

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47. The following article of the Indian Constitution abolished the practice of untouchability.

A

Article 14

B

Article 18

C

Article 17

D

Article

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law. The Untouchability Offences Act of 1955 (renamed to Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976) provided penalties for preventing a person from entering a place of worship or from taking water from a tank or well.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

48. From the following languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution pick out the one which is the official language of a State :

A

Kashmiri

B

Urdu

C

Sindhi

D

Nepali

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Kashmiri language is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India, and is a part of the Sixth Schedule in the constitution of the Jammu and Kashmir. Along with other regional languages mentioned in the Sixth Schedule, as well as Hindi and Urdu, the Kashmiri language is to be developed in the state. Some Kashmiri speakers frequently use Hindi as a second language, though the most frequently used second language is Urdu. Since November 2008, the Kashmiri language has been made a compulsory subject in all schools in the Valley up to the secondary level.

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49. Under which Article of the Constitution can an Emergency be declared in India on account of war or external aggression ?

A

Article 356

B

Article 352

C

Article 353

D

Article 354

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi to escape conviction). The President can declare such an emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month. Such an emergency can be imposed for six months. It can be extended by six months by repeated parliamentary approval.

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50. Constitution of India considers free and compulsory education to children up to–

A

10 Years

B

14 Years

C

18 Years

D

21 Years

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21 A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21 A, means that every child has a right to full time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.

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51. Which Article of the Indian constitution provides for the employer to give maternity benefits to its employees ?

A

Article-41

B

Article-42

C

Article-43

D

Article-44

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Article 42 of the Indian Constitution has provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. It comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

52. Article-32 of the Indian constitution relates to :

A

Right against exploitation

B

Right to religion

C

Right to constitutional remedies

D

Right to equality

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The sole object of the Article 32 of the Constitution of India is the enforcement of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights.

Correct Answered :

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53. Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discrimination by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution ?

A

Place of birth

B

Race

C

Language

D

Caste

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Article 15 is about prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It states that no citizen shall, on ground only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to: access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained whole or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of general public.

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54. Which Article of the Indian Constitution includes the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens?

A

Article 50A

B

Article 50B

C

Article 51A

D

Article 51B

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Article 51A became a part of the Indian Constitution on December 18, 1976 by virtue of the Constitutional (Forty Second) Amendment Act 1976. The new Part IVA was titled as Fundamental Duties.

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55. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form ?

A

Article 16

B

Article 17

C

Article 18

D

Article 15

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law. The Untouchability Offences Act of 1955 (renamed to Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976) provided penalties for preventing a person from entering a place of worship or from taking water from a tank or well.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

56. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj ?

A

Article. 36

B

Article. 39

C

Article. 40

D

Article 48

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

During the drafting of the Constitution of India, Panchayati Raj Institutions were placed in the nonjusticiable part of the Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy, as Article 40.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

57. How many schedules does the Constitution of India contain ?

A

9

B

10

C

11

D

12

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Schedules are lists in the Constitution that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government. First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4)- This lists the states and territories of India, lists any changes to their borders and the laws used to make that change. Twelfth Schedule (Article 243-W)— Municipalities (urban local government).

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58. Under which article of Constitution does Jammu and Kashmir enjoys special constitutional position ?

A

Article 356

B

Article 124

C

Article 170

D

Article 370

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (1) of article 370 of the Constitution, the President, with the concurrence of the Government of the State of Jammu and Kashmir made the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 which came into force on 14/5/1954. This article specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communications,(matters specified in the instrument of accession) the Indian Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all other laws. Thus the state’s residents lived under a separate set of laws, including those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as compared to other Indians.

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Wrong Answered :

59. The articles 17 and 18 of constitution provide

A

social equality

B

economic equality

C

political equality

D

religious equality

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (1) of article 370 of the Constitution, the President, with the concurrence of the Government of the State of Jammu and Kashmir made the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 which came into force on 14/5/1954. This article specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communications,(matters specified in the instrument of accession) the Indian Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all other laws. Thus the state’s residents lived under a separate set of laws, including those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as compared to other Indians.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

60. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution provides for

A

equality before law

B

equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

C

abolition of titles

D

abolition of untouchability

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

61. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a State due to the failure of the constitutional machinery ?

A

352

B

356

C

360

D

350

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Under article 356 of the Indian Constitution, State emergency is declared on failure of constitutional machinery in a state. During such an emergency, the President can take over the entire work of the executive, and the Governor administers the state in the name of the President. the Legislative Assembly can be dissolved or may remain in suspended animation. The Parliament makes laws on the 66 subjects of the state list

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Wrong Answered :

62. Baltora glacier is located in:

A

Karakoram ranges

B

Pamir plateau

C

Shivalik

D

Alps

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The Baltoro Glacier, at 62 kilometers long is one of the longest glaciers outside the polar regions. It is located in Baltistan, in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of Pakistan, and runs through part of the Karakoram mountain range. The Baltoro Muztagh lies to the north and east of the glacier, while the Masherbrum Mountains lie to the south. At 8,611 m, K2 is the highest mountain in the region, and three others within 20 km top 8,000 m. The glacier gives rise to the Shigar River, which is a tributary of the Indus River

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

63. In which state is the Maikala range situated ?

A

Uttar Pradesh

B

Rajasthan

C

Bihar

D

Chhatisgarh

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Maikal Hills are range of hills in the state of Chhattisgarh India. The Maikal Hills are an eastern part of the Satpuras in Kawardha District of Chattisgarh, overlooking the scenic town of Kawardha. They have an altitude ranging from 340 m to 941 m above sea level. This densely forested and thinly populated range gives rise to several streams and rivers including the tributaries of Narmada and Wainganga rivers. The hills are inhabited by two tribal peoples, the Baigas and the Gonds.

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64. The latitude passing through the northern most part of India is :

A

35° 6` N

B

36° 6` N

C

37° 6` N

D

38° 6` N

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The latitude of the northernmost point of India, nearest to minutes is 37° 6`.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

65. Nallamala hills are located in the state of :

A

Orissa

B

Meghalaya

C

Andhra Pradesh

D

Gujarat

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Nallamalas are a section of the Eastern Ghats which stretch primarily over Kurnool, Mahabubnagar, Guntur, Prakasam and Kadapa districts of the state of Andhra Pradesh. They run in a nearly north- south alignment, parallel to the Coromandel Coast for close to 430 km between the rivers, Krishna and Pennar. Its northern boundaries are marked by the flat Palnadu basin while in the south it merges with the Tirupati hills. An extremely old system, the hills have been extensively weathered and eroded over the years.

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Wrong Answered :

66. On which river has the Hirakud Dam been built ?

A

Mahanadi

B

Godavari

C

Cauvery

D

Periyar

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15 km from Sambalpur in the state of Orissa in India. Built in 1957, the dam is one of the world`s longest earthen dam. Behind the dam extends a lake, Hirakud Reservoir, 55 km long. Hirakud Dam is the longest man-made dam in the world, about 26 km in length. It is one of the first major multipurpose river valley project started after India`s independence. The name of the dam is mostly mispronounced in North India as Hirakund which is actually Hirakud.

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67. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A

Koyana Project - Maharashtra

B

Sharavathy Project - Karnataka

C

Balimela Project - Orissa

D

Sabarigiri Project - Gujarat

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Sabaraigiri project is located in 48 kms from Pathanamthitta district, through tea estates and thick forest is the famous Hydro Electric Project called Sabaraigiri. This is constructed across the many mountains rivers and the water collected in reservoir passed through huge tunnels to a main reservoir at place Anamudi and from through large pipes to the Muziyoor power house.

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68. Tehri Dam receives water from which of the following rivers ?

A

Alaknanda

B

Bhagirathi

C

Gandak

D

Ghaghra

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

The Tehri Dam is a multi-purpose rock and earth- fill embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India. It is the primary dam of the THDC India Ltd. and the Tehri hydroelectric complex. The Tehri Dam has been the object of protests by environmental organizations and local people of the region. In addition to the human rights concerns, the project has spurred concerns about the environmental consequences of locating a large dam in the fragile ecosystem of the Himalayan foothills.

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Wrong Answered :

69. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by :

A

Canals

B

Wells

C

Tubewells

D

Tanks

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Canal is the second largest source of irrigation providing water to 29.24 percent of the net area under irrigation. The country has one of the world’s largest canal systems stretching over more than one lakh kilometres. Well Irrigation is a principal method of irrigation used in India. Underground water is tapped for drinking purposes and at the same time it is also tapped for irrigating the cultivated land. For implementation of this procedure, a hole is dug in the ground for providing perennial supply of soft water. Well irrigation is definitely more popular in those regions where ground water is in plenty and where there are very few canals.

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Wrong Answered :

70. The maximum permissible gap between two sessions of the Parliament is

A

3 months

B

4 months

C

4 months

D

6 months

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Article 85 of the Indian Constitution states that six months must not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the succeeding session. In other words, the interval between two sessions must not exceed six months.

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71. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not?

A

President

B

Speaker of Lok Sabha

C

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

D

Finance Minister

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Under the Constitution, the Speaker enjoys a special position insofar as certain matters pertaining to the relations between the two Houses of Parliament are concerned. He certifies Money Bills and decides on money matters by reason of the Lok Sabha`s overriding powers in financial matters.It is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha who presides over joint sittings called in the event of disagreement between the two Houses on a legislative measure. As regards recognition of parliamentary parties it is the Speaker who lays down the necessary guidelines for such recognition.

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72. Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?

A

A member appointed by the President.

B

A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.

C

A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

D

A senior most member of the House.

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.

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Wrong Answered :

73. Indian Parliament includes :

A

Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

B

Only Lok Sabha

C

President and Lok Sabha

D

President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses—Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

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74. What is the minimum age prescribed for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha ?

A

25 years

B

21 years

C

30 years

D

35 years

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. A person to be qualified for the membership of the Rajya Sabha should be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution; and he must be not less than 30 years of age.

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75. Who is the competent to dissolve the Parliament ?

A

The President

B

The Cabinet with the concurrence of the Leader of the Opposition

C

By resolution in both Houses of Parliament

D

none of these

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha. When the term, dissolution of Parliament is used, it only means the Lok Sabha, the House of the People, the Lower House of Parliament. Parliament comprises the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha, the Council of States, the Upper House. The first and third have fixed terms of five and six years respectively, the Lok Sabha has a term of five years but can be dissolved earlier.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

76. When was zero hour introduced in the parliamentary affairs in India ?

A

1952

B

1962

C

1972

D

1982

Polity SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. Zero Hour is the Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. However, it does not find mention in the rules of procedure. During zero hour, questions are asked about issues of public importance without prior permission. These questions are usually directed against individual ministers.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

77. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary?

A

Cauvery

B

Krishna

C

Narmada

D

Ganga

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Most of the west flowing rivers of Indian peninsula do not form delta. They form estuary. Narmada is one of them. It is so because rocky terrain of the Western Ghats does not allow the rivers to spread out much, and there is not sufficient plain stretch of land between the Arabian sea and Western Ghats for Narmada to slowdown and bifurcate into distributaries. Narmada forms an estuary of 21 km at the Gulf of Khambat. The river is presently partially navigable in the estuary reach around Bharuch but the river has never been a transport artery.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

78. Which of the following does not have an influence over the climate in India ?

A

Monsoons

B

Ocean currents

C

Nearness to equator

D

Presence of Indian ocean

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

India’s geography and geology are climatically piv- otal: the Thar Desert in the northwest and the Hima- layas in the north work in tandem to effect a cultur- ally and economically break-all monsoonal regime. As Earth’s highest and most massive mountain range, the Himalayan system bars the influx of frigid ka- tabatic winds from the icy Tibetan Plateau and northerly Central Asia. Most of North India is thus kept warm or is only mildly chilly or cold during winter; the same thermal dam keeps most regions in India hot in summer. Ocean current do not any role in the climate of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

79. The South West monsoon engulfs the entire India by

A

5th June

B

15th June

C

1st July

D

15th July

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Derived from the Arabic word `mausam`, monsoon implies a seasonal reversal in wind direction. These changes lead to changes in the seasonal distribution of rainfall and temperature. Although the Andaman & Nicobar Islands receive monsoon as early as mid-May, the southwest monsoon enters the subcontinent’s mainland through the Kerala coast. The monsoon then gets divided into two parts: the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch. It normally reaches Mangalore on the west coast and Vishakhapatnam on the east coast within four days. Both the branches move to reach Mumbai and Kolkata on average between June 10 and 13. The monsoon crosses Varanasi, Ahmedabad and Bhopal by June 15. Agra has to wait for another five days and Delhi by June 29. The two branches merge over Punjab and Himachal. By mid-July the southwest monsoon engulfs the entire subcontinent.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

80. World`s maximum newsprint comes from :

A

Deciduous forest

B

Monsoon forest

C

Mangrove forest

D

Rainfed forest

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Newspapers are made from a type of paper called newsprint. Coniferous softwoods such as spruce, pine, and cedar provide long (average 3mm), strong fibres. Newsprint needs strength enough to withstand the demands of fast printing presses, the ability to accept high quality colour printing and enough opac- ity to prevent the printing showing through the pag- es. In most temperate coniferous forests, evergreen conifers predominate, while some are a mix of coni- fers and broadleaf evergreen trees and/or broadleaf deciduous trees. Temperate evergreen forests are com- mon in the coastal areas of regions that have mild winters and heavy rainfall, or inland in drier climates or mountain areas

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

81. Mudumalai Wild-life Sanctuary is located in the State of

A

Kerala

B

Karnataka

C

Tamil Nadu

D

Andhra Paradesh

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, now also declared a Tiger Reserve, lies on the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills (Blue Mountains), in Nilgiri District, about 150 km (93 mi) north-west of Coimbatore in the westernmost part of Tamil Nadu, on the interstate boundaries with Karnataka and Kerala states in South India. Mudumalai, which means `first hills`, is one of the first wildlife sanctuaries established in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

82. In India, rain forests are found in

A

Central India

B

Eastern Ghat

C

N.E. Himalayas and Western Ghats

D

N.W. Himalayas and Eastern Ghats

General Geography SSC Section Officer
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The main areas of tropical forest are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; the Western Ghats, which fringe the Arabian Sea coastline of peninsular India; and the greater Assam region in the north-east along the Eastern Himalayas. Small remnants of rain forest are found in Orissa state. Tropical rainforests are located in a band around the equator (Zero degrees latitude) in the area between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° North latitude) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° South latitude).This 3,000 mile (4800 kilometres) wide band is known as the `tropics`.

Correct Answered :

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