Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Bilquis Mir — she is the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
1. Who is the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games?
A
Afreen Hyder
B
Mehreen Tariq
C
Bilquis Mir
D
Sania Mirza
Bilquis Mir — she is the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the soil type required for growing Millets (Nutri-Cereals)?
i. Jowar- Rain-fed crop grown in the moist areas with less or no irrigation.
ii. Bajra-Well-drained fertile loamy and clayey loamy.
iii. Ragi- Red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils.
A
Only i and ii
B
Only i and iii
C
Only ii and iii
D
All of the above
Jowar (Sorghum):
Jowar is primarily a rain-fed crop that thrives in moist areas with minimal irrigation. It is well-suited for regions with low to moderate rainfall and is often cultivated in areas with sandy loam soils. This aligns with the first statement.
Bajra (Pearl Millet):
Bajra prefers well-drained soils and is commonly grown in sandy loam and clayey loam soils. These soil types provide the necessary drainage and fertility for optimal growth. Therefore, the second statement is correct.
Ragi (Finger Millet):
Ragi is adaptable to various soil types, including red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils. It can grow in both dry and marginal soil conditions, making it suitable for diverse agro-climatic zones. The third statement is partially correct but overly restrictive, as Ragi can grow in soils beyond those listed.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
3. Which of the following statements is correct about the winners of the 2025 Padma Bhushan award?
A
Shobana Chandrakumar in the field of Literature
B
Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti in the field of Trade and Industry
C
Jose Chacko Periappuram in the field of Public Affair
D
Pankaj Patel in the field of Literature and Education
According to the official list of Padma Bhushan awardees for 2025, Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti was honored in the Trade and Industry category for his distinguished service.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
4. Match the following pairs:
Nobel Prize Award Winners 2024 - Category Recipient(s)
i) Medicine 1) David Baker, and Demis Hassabis and John Jumper
ii) Physics 2) John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton
iii) Chemistry 3) VictorAmbros and Gary Ruvkun
iv) Literature 4) Han Kang
Choose the correct option:
A
i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
B
i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
C
i-4, i-2, iii-3, iv-1
D
i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
i) Medicine – Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun
Awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their discovery of microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional gene regulation.
ii) Physics – John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton
Awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics for their foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks.
iii) Chemistry – David Baker, Demis Hassabis, and John Jumper
Awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for their work in computational protein design and protein structure prediction.
iv) Literature – Han Kang
Awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
5. What does NCDC stand for?
A
National Centre for Disease Control
B
National Council for Disease Control
C
National Commission for Disease Curb
D
National Committee for Disease Control
NCDC stands for National Centre for Disease Control, which is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Established in 1963, it functions as a national center of excellence for the control of communicable diseases in India. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
6. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of ringworm infection?
A
Prolonged contact with highly infected soil
B
Close contact and sharing personal items like towels and bedding with an infected person
C
Close contact with infected animals
D
Consuming contaminated food and water
Ringworm is a common fungal skin infection caused by dermatophytes—fungi that thrive on keratin found in skin, hair, and nails. It spreads primarily through:
Skin-to-skin contact with an infected person or animal.
Contact with contaminated objects such as towels, bedding, or combs.
Exposure to infected soil, though this is less common and typically requires prolonged contact with highly infected soil.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
7. Which ofthe following statements about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations(ASEAN) is/are correct?
i. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by Indonesia, Malaysia, the
A
Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
ii. Brunei joined in 1984, followed by Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia
B
between 1995 and 1999.
iii. Today, ASEAN has 10 member states, working together for regional cooperation and development.
C
Only i
D
Only i and ii
i. ASEAN was indeed founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
ii. Brunei joined in 1984, and Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia joined between 1995 and 1999.
iii. Today, ASEAN has 10 member states working together for regional cooperation and development.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
8. Which ofthe following countries were admitted as full members of BRICS in 2024?
A
United Arab Emirates, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Argentina
B
Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates
C
Iran, Saudi Arabia, Indonesia, and Ethiopia
D
Argentina, Egypt, Indonesia, Saudi Arabia
In 2024, BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) expanded by admitting several new full members. The countries officially welcomed into the bloc as full members in January 2024 were:
Egypt
Ethiopia
Iran
United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Additionally, Indonesia was admitted as a full member on January 6, 2025, following the establishment of its new government in 2024
However, Argentina did not join BRICS. The Argentine government, under President Javier Milei, officially declined the membership invitation in November 2023
Saudi Arabia was also invited but has not yet accepted the invitation to join as a full member
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
9. Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?
A
Germany
B
United States
C
Philippines
D
India
The Philippines has been selected to host the board of the "Loss and Damage" fund, which aims to provide financial assistance to countries vulnerable to the impacts of climate change.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
10. Which institution released the 'Consultation Paper on Digital Inclusion in the Era of Emerging Technologies'?
A
NITI Aayog
B
TRAI
C
NASSCOM
D
RBI
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) released the Consultation Paper on Digital Inclusion in the Era of Emerging Technologies
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
11. Which institution has launched the '100 Microsites Project'?
A
NABARD
B
NITI Aayog
C
National Health Authority
D
National Institute of Virology
The National Health Authority (NHA), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, launched the 100 Microsites Project as part of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM). This initiative aims to promote the adoption of digital health services by establishing clusters of small and medium-sized healthcare facilities, such as clinics, nursing homes, hospitals (preferably with fewer than 10 beds), labs, and pharmacies, that are ABDM-enabled and offer digital health services to patients
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
12. IGST is payable when the supply is?
A
Inter-state
B
Intra-state
C
Intra-UT
D
Inter-UT
IGST (Integrated Goods and Services Tax) is levied on inter-state supply of goods and services.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
13. What is the term for the process of managing risk in financial markets?
A
Arbitrage
B
Speculation
C
Diversification
D
Hedging
Hedging is a financial strategy used to reduce or manage the risk of adverse price movements in assets.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
14. What is the name of the new parliament building in India, which was inaugurated in 2023?
A
Sansad Bhawan
B
Parliament House
C
Lok Sabha Bhavan
D
Bharat Sansad Bhawan
Sansad Bhavan replaces the colonial-era Parliament House and is part of the Central Vista Redevelopment Project in New Delhi
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
15. What is the primary purpose of a budget?
A
To track expenses
B
To increase income
C
To allocate resource effectively
D
To reduce debt
To allocate resources effectively
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
16. Which of the following forms of government characterized by a single person holding absolute power and control?
A
Democracy
B
Monarchy
C
Oligarchy
D
Autocracy
Autocracy is a system of government in which a single person holds absolute power and authority over the state.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
17. Which country hosted the 2022 FIFA world cup?
A
Qatar
B
Saudi Arabia
C
UAE
D
Egypt
The 2022 FIFA World Cup was hosted by Qatar, marking the first time the tournament was held in the Middle East.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
18. In which year did India win its first Olympic gold medal in Hockey?
A
1932
B
1936
C
1948
D
1928
India won its first Olympic gold medal in field hockey at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
19. Which ofthe following battle marked the beginning of the British rule in India?
A
Battle of Panipat
B
Battle of Wandiwash
C
Battle of Plassey
D
Battle of Buxar
The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, with his French allies.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
20. Whatis the scientific term for the study ofthe structure, behaviour and evaluation of the universe?
A
Cosmology
B
Astronomy
C
Astrophysics
D
Geology
Cosmology is the scientific study of the origin, structure, evolution, and eventual fate of the universe.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
21. Which article ofthe Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality
A
Article 17
B
Article 15
C
Article 14
D
Article 16
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
22. The Indian Pharmacopoeia specifies that the uniformity of weight test for capsules should be performed on how many capsules?
A
10 capsules
B
20 саpsules
C
30 capsules
D
40 capsules
20 capsules
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
23. According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, for the dissolution test, what is the typical volume of the dissolution medium used for capsules?
A
250 mL
B
500 mL
C
1000 mL
D
1500 mL
According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP), the dissolution test for capsules is typically carried out using 1000 mL of the dissolution medium.
The medium is maintained at 37°C ± 0.5°C to simulate human body conditions.
This volume ensures adequate sink conditions, allowing the drug to dissolve completely for accurate measurement of drug release rate.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
24. The mathematical formula for calculating Hausner ratio is:
A
Bulk density/Tapped density
B
Tapped density/Bulk density
C
Bulk density/Void density
D
Void density/Bulk density
The Hausner ratio is an important parameter in pharmaceutical powder characterization used to assess flow properties.
Formula:
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
25. In dissolution test, flask is maintained at
A
37°C ± 0.5°C
B
37°C ± 0.1°C
C
37°C ± 2°C
D
40°C ± 0.5°C
The dissolution test is used to determine the rate and extent at which the active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) is released from a dosage form (e.g., tablets, capsules) into a solution.
The flask or dissolution medium is maintained at 37°C ± 0.5°C, which simulates the human body temperature, ensuring physiologically relevant conditions for testing.
Deviations beyond this range can affect the dissolution rate and lead to inaccurate results.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
26. Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:
A
Capping
B
Picking
C
Mottling
D
Lamination
In pharmaceutical tablet manufacturing:
Mottling refers to the uneven or patchy distribution of color on the surface of a tablet.
Capping – when the top or bottom layer of a tablet separates from the main body.
Picking – when small portions of tablet coating stick to the punches during compression.
Lamination – when a tablet splits into two or more layers.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
27. Which poisonous substances from the following are exempted from certain provisions of the Poison Act?
A
List A
B
List B
C
List C
D
List D
Under the Poisons Act, 1919:
Poisons are classified into List A, List B, List C, and List D based on their toxicity and potential for misuse.
List B poisons are exempted from certain provisions of the Act, such as licensing for sale or restrictions on possession, under prescribed conditions.
List A poisons are highly toxic and strictly regulated, while Lists C and D have their own regulatory requirements.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
28. Cure for cancer is an example of the following advertisements
A
Bonafide
B
Prohibited
C
Permitted
D
Exempted
Prohibited
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
29. Which ofthe following authorities is responsible for registering trademarks in India under the Trademark Registration Act?
A
Intellectual Property Office of India
B
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
C
Ministry of Law and Justice
D
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
In India, the registration of trademarks is governed by the Trade Marks Act, 1999 (earlier Trade Marks Act, 1958).
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
30. Which of the following gives permission for the registration of breeders?
A
CPCSEA
B
IAEC
C
IBSC
D
Central Government
Under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, the Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experiments on Animals (CPCSEA) is responsible for:
Approving and registering animal breeders who supply animals for research purposes.
Ensuring that breeders comply with prescribed standards for housing, feeding, and care of laboratory animals.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
31. The head office of Committee for the purpose ofcontrol and supervision of experiment on animals (CPCSEA)?
A
Kolkata
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Chennai
The Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experiments on Animals (CPCSEA) is the apex body in India for the regulation and supervision of animal experimentation.
Its head office is located in New Delhi.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
32. Which ofthe following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?
A
To ensure that animals are used for research without any ethical consideration
B
To approve and monitor animal experimentation to ensure human treatment
C
To promote the commercial use of animals for testing and research
D
To ban all forms of animal testing and research activities
To approve and monitor animal experimentation to ensure humane treatment
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
33. Biologicals are tested at which of the following centres?
A
Kasauli
B
Mumbai
C
Hyderabad
D
Delhi
Biologicals such as vaccines, sera, and other immunological products are tested at the Central Drugs Laboratory, Kasauli.
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
34. Which body was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 to ensure the welfare of animals in India?
A
Animal Welfare Board of India
B
Central Animal Protection Council
C
Wildlife Conservation Council
D
National Animal Rescue Force
Animal Welfare Board of India
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered:
35. In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer
A
Restricted preparation
B
Unrestricted preparation
C
Bonded laboratory
D
Non bonded laboratory
Restricted preparation
Correct Answered:
Wrong Answered: