JKSSB Polity MCQs

1. According to the Constitution of India, Gram Panchayat is a/an

A

Organization of the Central Government

B

Organization of a State Government

C

Institution of self government

D

Community based organisation

Polity Stock Assistant 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

According to the Constitution of India, the Gram Panchayat is a/an "institution of self-government." This is established under Article 243 of the Indian Constitution, which pertains to the Panchayats and their roles in local self-governance.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

2. Which of the following writs issue a command to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform?

A

Certiorari

B

Mandamus

C

Quo - Warranto

D

Habeus Corpus

Polity Stock Assistant 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The writ that issues a command to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform is mandamus.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

3. Economic and social planning comes under which of the following?

A

Union List

B

State List

C

Concurrent List

D

None of the above

Polity Stock Assistant 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Economic and social planning typically comes under the concurrent list in India. This means that both the Union (central government) and State governments have the authority to legislate on matters related to economic and social planning

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

4. The following date is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution

A

January 26, 1950

B

January 25, 1950

C

November 26, 1949

D

November 25, 1949

Polity Stock Assistant 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The date mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is "26th November 1949." This date marks the adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

5. Who presides over the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?

A

Speaker of the Lok Sabha

B

Vice President of India

C

Speaker of Rajya Sabha

D

Chief Justice of India

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The joint sitting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) in India is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

6. Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also know as _____?

A

Vidhan Sabha

B

Vidhan Parishad

C

Lok Sabha

D

Rajya Sabha

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also known as the **Rajya Sabha**.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

7. In which of the following states there is a bicameral legislature?

A

Punjab

B

Goa

C

Bihar

D

Sikkim

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Among the states listed, Bihar is the state with a bicameral legislature. It has two houses: the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

8. Who implements the Model Code of Coduct for elections in India?

A

Parliament

B

Supreme Court

C

High Court

D

Election Commission

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Model Code of Conduct for elections in India is implemented and enforced by the Election Commission of India (ECI). This code sets guidelines for political parties and candidates to ensure free and fair elections by promoting ethical practices during the electoral process.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

9. How many tiers are there in a Panchayati Raj structure in India?

A

One

B

Two

C

Three

D

Four

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

There are typically three tiers in a Panchayati Raj structure in India:

1. **Village (Gram) Panchayat** at the lowest level, covering a group of villages.
2. **Intermediate (Block or Taluka) Panchayat** at the middle level, covering a group of Gram Panchayats.
3. **District (Zilla) Panchayat** at the highest level, covering a district or a group of blocks/taluks.

These tiers form a decentralized system of local self-government aimed at rural development and governance.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

10. Which of the following writs  provides a remedy for a person who has ben unlawfully held in prison?

A

Certriorari

B

Habeas Corpus

C

Mandamus

D

Prohibition

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The writ that provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison is **habeas corpus**. This writ directs the authority (such as a prison warden or government) to produce the detained individual before a court and justify the legality of their detention.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

11. Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?

A

Right to form association

B

Right to education

C

Right to life

D

Right to property

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The right that is NOT related to fundamental rights among the options listed is **right to property**. The right to property was initially a fundamental right under the Constitution of India but was later removed from the list of fundamental rights and placed under legal rights due to constitutional amendments.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

12. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the India Federal System?

A

Bicameralism

B

Independent judiciary to settle disputes

C

Single tier Government

D

Division of powers between the Centre and States

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The feature that is NOT typically associated with the Indian federal system is **bicameralism**. In India, the Parliament is unicameral, meaning it consists of only one house (the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha together form the Parliament, but it`s not a traditional bicameral system).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

13. On which day is Constitution Day celebrated every year in India?

A

30 May

B

26 November

C

26 January

D

15 October

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Constitution Day, also known as National Law Day, is celebrated in India on November 26th every year. This day commemorates the adoption of the Constitution of India on November 26, 1949.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

14. Which type of Citizenship is provided by the Constitution of India?

A

Single Citizenship

B

Regional Citizenship

C

Dual Citizenship

D

Minority Citizenship

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Constitution of India provides for **single citizenship**. This means that every Indian citizen is a citizen of the Republic of India, and there is no separate state citizenship.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

15. Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional body?

A

Finance Commission

B

NITI Aayoq

C

National Commission for scheduled tribes

D

Election Commission

Polity Finance Inspector 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

NITI Aayog is not a Constitutional body in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

16. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was adopted on :

A

26th January 1950

B

26th November 1949

C

15th August 1947

D

9th December 1946

Polity Supervisor 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly of India and came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

17. Right to property was made Legal Right from a Fundamental Right by which among the following amendments to Indian Constitution?

A

42nd

B

44th

C

45th

D

77th

Polity Supervisor 2024 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Right to Property which is removed from the list of Fundamental Rights through the 44th Amendment becomes a simple legal right under Article 300A. The 44th Amendment of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

18. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution stated the Temporary provision of J and K?

A

356

B

343

C

393

D

370

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

370

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

19. According to Preamble of India Constitution, Equality guaranteed is in terms of opportunities and _____.

A

Positions

B

Dignity

C

Status

D

Actions

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Status

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

20. ____ has the power to form new State or Union Territory in India.

A

Parliament

B

President

C

Legislature

D

House of People

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

According to Article 3 of the Constitution of India, Parliament of India can form a new state by separation of a territory from any state.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

21. The Executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?

A

Prime minister

B

Home minister

C

Vice president

D

President

po JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Executive power of the Union is vested in the President, and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

22. According to Preamble which value dictates that India is a free nation and no external power can dictate the government of India?

A

Equality

B

Sovereignity

C

Fraternity

D

Justice

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Sovereign: Government has the supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India. Socialist: Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by the society.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

23. Abolition of Titles is mentioned in Article ____ of the Indian Constitution.

A

15

B

13

C

18

D

17

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

ARTICLE 18 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION:

1. Abolition of titles:

(1) No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State.

(2) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.

(3) No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign State.

(4) No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

24. What is a merit of Right to Freedom of Religion?

A

Having political controversy

B

Followers of different Religions have disputes among themselves

C

Person may choose, not to follow any Religion

D

Forcibly persuading people to convert their Religion

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Person may choose, not to follow any Religion

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

25. In India, Lower Houses are constituted on the basis of ____.

A

Fraternity

B

Universal adult franchise

C

Equality

D

Secular

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Universal adult franchise

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

26. On which date, India adopted National Anthem?

A

24 Jannuary

B

22 July

C

15 August

D

24 November

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The song Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bangla by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the National Anthem of India on January 24, 1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

27. Indian Constitution is elephantine in size due to reasons, except

A

Vast geographical diversity

B

Government of India Act, 1935

C

Drawn from various sources

D

Single constitution for both the Centre and State

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Drawn from various sources

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

28. While enjoying Right to Freedom, one must not

A

Assemble Peacefully

B

Threaten Freedom of others

C

Move freely in India

D

Follow Fundamental Duties

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Threaten Freedom of others

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

29. How many Vice President(s) did constituent Assembly have?

A

3

B

2

C

1

D

4

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constituent Assembly had two vice presidents namely Harendra Coomar Mukherjee and Vangal Thiruvenkatachari Krishnamachari 

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

30. Who communicates all Administrative decisions of State taken by Council of Ministers to Governor?

A

Chief Minister

B

Speaker of House of Poeple

C

Advocate General of State

D

Prime Minister

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Chief Minister of the state is the principal channel of communication between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

31. What is meant by Universal adult franchise?

A

Business promotional activities

B

Universal age group for adults

C

Duties of adults

D

Right to vote for all adult Citizen

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The universal Adult Franchise refers that all citizens who are 18 years and above irrespective of their caste or education, religion, color, race, and economic conditions are free to vote. In a democracy, a universal adult franchise is important, as it is based on the idea of equality.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

32. If Union Parliament needs to remove a matter from State List, approval of ____ is necessary

A

Council of States

B

House of People

C

President

D

Prime Minister

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

When States Make a Request: When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

33. Subject of marriage and divorce is discussed in ____ list.

A

State

B

Union

C

District

D

Concurrent

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The important ones are Public order, Police, Agriculture including agricultural education and research, Land revenue including maintenance of land records. Emoluments of the governors fall in the Union list while Marriage and Divorce falls in the Concurrent list.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

34. In which Constitutional amendment did Panchayati Raj became Constitutional?

A

73rd

B

44th

C

53rd

D

60th

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT VERIFIED
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

In the history of Panchayati Raj, in India, on 24 April 1993, the Constitutional (73rd amendment) Act 1992 came into force to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

35. Financial Emergency is provided in

A

Article 356

B

Article 352

C

Article 360

D

Article 370

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Financial Emergency provisions are embedded in Article 360 of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

36. Ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in our preamble is borrowed from

A

America

B

Russia

C

British

D

Canada

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Russia

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

37. What does writ of Mandamus mean?

A

Court refers that arrested person should be presented before it

B

Court finds that particular office holder is not doing a legal duty

C

Higher court issue writ to lower case as lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction

D

Higher court ask lower courts to transfer the pending cases

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a court to any government, subordinate court, corporation, or public authority, to do some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do, and which is in the nature of public duty, and in certain cases one of a statutory duty.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

38. Who suggest conditions for acquiring Indian citizenship?

A

Preamble

B

Parliament

C

Minister of law

D

Attorney General

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Indian Constitution provides the power to the parliament under Article 11 to make laws and regulations about citizenship. This is the reason parliament passed the Citizenship Act in 1955.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

39. ____ of a state shall have a power to grant pardons, reprise or remission to a person who is convicted of any offence related to law.

A

Chief Minister

B

Governor

C

Minister of State of Home Affairs

D

Hight Court Judge

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

40. Which of the following is the basis of discrimination and violation of Right to Equality, except

A

Caste

B

Colour

C

Sex

D

Reservation

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Human Rights Act makes it illegal to discriminate on a wide range of grounds including sex, race, colour, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, association with a national minority, property, birth or other status.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

41. Which of the following Articles deals with the impeachment of the president?

A

Article 65

B

Article 62

C

Article 64

D

Article 61

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 61 in The Constitution Of India 1949.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

42. Which of the following is not a way through which Parliament controls Executive?

A

No Confidence Motion

B

Financial control

C

Sueing to court

D

Approval or refusal of Laws

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Parliament keeps a day-to-day watch over the activities of the Executive. As ours is a parliamentary system of Government, the Executive is responsible to the Parliament for all acts of omissions and commissions. The Parliament may remove a Cabinet out of power by a vote of no confidence. It may reject a bill or a budget proposal of the Cabinet.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

43. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the tenure of the President?

A

Article 53

B

Article 56

C

Article 55

D

Article 52

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 56 : Term of office of President.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

44. Which of the following is a right of a person accused of various offences?

A

Getting sufficient protection

B

Getting delays for proceedings

C

Getting enough sleep

D

Getting a meal for 3 times

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Getting sufficient protection

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

45. Who was the Vice President of Interim government,

A

Viceroy

B

Stafford Cripps

C

Dr. Rajendra prasad

D

Jawaharlal Nehru

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Jawaharlal Nehru was the head of the interim government. The powers of a prime minister are bestowed on the vice-president of the Council of ministers, a position held by the Congress leader Jawaharlal Nehru who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in 1946.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

46. Which of the following is an important feature of Fundamental rights?

A

It is protected by constitution

B

It is unjustifiable in nature

C

Government cannot put restrictions on the rights on whatever condition

D

Key head position are exceptions to this rights

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

It is protected by constitution

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

47. ____ are not enforceable by court but it is important that State acknowledge them while making

A

Constitutional remedies

B

Fundamental duties

C

Directive principles

D

Fundamental rights

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Directive principles

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

48. Who has a right to dissolve "House of the People"?

A

President

B

People of India

C

Prime Minister

D

Council of States

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

49. Which type of Bill can Council of states approve or give suggestions for change, but cannot reject the Bill?

A

Money

B

Financial

C

Ordinary

D

Constitution amendment

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Money Bill

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

50. Indian Legislature is ____ in nature.

A

Bicameral

B

Unicameral

C

Supreme

D

Subordinate

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

PARLIAMENT OF INDIA. The Constitution of India which came into force on 26 January 1950, provides for a bicameral Parliament consisting of the President and the two Houses known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

51. The source of India`s Sovereignty lies in the

A

Preamble to the constitution

B

People of India

C

Legislature

D

Judiciary

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares India as "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic". Sovereignty implies that India is free and has the authority to conduct its own affairs and governance. In India, the supreme power is possessed by people of the country. The people of the nation elect their representatives to govern them i.e., the Parliament derives its sovereignty from the people of the nation.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

52. What is meant by Preventive detention?

A

Preventing a person who is likely to engage in unlawful activity by arresting him

B

Not to prevent a person from unlawful activities

C

Prohibiting right of life and liberty of accused

D

None of these

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Preventive detention is basically detention without trial in order to prevent a person from committing a crime.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

53. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

A

To develop scientific temper

B

To respect national flag and anthem

C

To safeguard public property

D

To protect monuments and national importance

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT VERIFIED
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

List of Fundamental Duties

  1. Abide by the Constitution and respect national flag & National Anthem
  2. Follow ideals of the freedom struggle
  3. Protect sovereignty & integrity of India
  4. Defend the country and render national services when called upon
  5. Sprit of common brotherhood
  6. Preserve composite culture
  7. Preserve natural environment
  8. Develop scientific temper
  9. Safeguard public property
  10. Strive for excellence
  11. Duty fo all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

54. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Vice President of India?

A

Article 61

B

Article 62

C

Article 63

D

Article 65

Poli JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 63 of the Constitution of India provides for a Vice President. He is elected for 5 years, and is an ex-officio member of the Rajya Sabha. 

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

55. Which of the following is not an eligibility criteria for being a President?

A

He / She Should be citizen of India

B

Is qualified for election as a member in House of the People

C

He / She must be 25 years old

D

Should not hold any office of profit under the of India

Polity JKPSI 2022 CBT REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

(1) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he

(a) is a citizen of India,

(b) has completed the age of thirty-five years, and

(c) is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People. 

(2) A person shall not be eligible for election as President if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

56. The Constitution of India guarantees protection from social injustice and all different forms of exploitation. Which of the following is an INCORRECT option pertaining to the protective legislations acted by respective governments?

A

ST and other Traditional Forest Dwellers Act, 2006

B

SC and ST (Prevention of Economic offenses against tribal people) Act, 2005

C

The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1995

D

SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989

Polity JKP SI 2022 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

SC and ST (Prevention of Economic offenses against tribal people) Act, 2005

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

57. As a result of the partition under the Mountbatten Plan of 3rd June, 1947, the membership of the Constituent Assembly was reduced to

A

255 members

B

387 members

C

299 members

D

490 members

Polity JKP SI 2022 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

As a result of the partition under the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947, a separate Constituent Assembly was set up for Pakistan and representatives of some Provinces ceased to be members of the Assembly. As a result, the membership of the Assembly was reduced to 299.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

58. The final authority for making laws of India, that can make new laws, change existing laws or abolish them is, the

A

Supreme Court

B

President

C

Prime Minister

D

Parliament

Polity JKP SI 2022 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

For making laws in India, Parliament is the final authority. These assemblies are called legislature, as the task of legislation or law making is very crucial. Parliaments across the globe have the power to abolish old or existing laws and create a new law, or change the existing laws.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

59. The constitution of India was adopted by the constituent Assembly of India on which of the following dates?

A

Nov 26, 1949

B

Dec 26, 1950

C

Jan 26, 1949

D

Nov 26, 1947

Polity JKP SI 2022 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November, 1949 and the hon`ble members appended their signatures to it on 24 January, 1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

60. As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the President of India is elected through which of the following processes?

A

Territorial representation

B

Functional representation

C

Proportional representation

D

Minority representation

Polity JKP SI 2022 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

61. In the Indian parliamentary system, a member who is elected for a full term of the Rajya Sabha serves for a period of

A

4 years

B

5 years

C

6 years

D

2 years

Polity JKP SI 2022 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Members sit for staggered terms lasting six years, with about a third of the 233 designates up for election every two years, in even-numbered years. The Rajya Sabha meets in continuous sessions, and unlike the Lok Sabha, being the lower house of the Parliament, the Rajya Sabha is not subjected to dissolution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

62. Which of the following acts of Indian Constitution aims at revitalizing and strengthening the urban government?

A

74th Constitutional Amendment Act

B

60th Constitutional Amendment Act

C

66th Constitutional Amendment Act

D

59th Constitutional Amendment Act

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

74th Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

63. Which of the following acts provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system?

A

76th Amendment Act of 1994

B

73rd Amendment Act of 1992

C

78th Amendment Act of 1995

D

68th Amendment Act of 1991

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

73rd Amendment Act of 1992

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

64. What does the Article 6 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights deal with?

A

Right to Equality before the United Nations

B

Right to Recognition as a Person before the Law

C

Freedom from Arbitrary Arrest and Exile

D

Right to Remedy by Competent Tribunal

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Right to Recognition as a Person before the Law

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

65. Which Constitutional Amendment Act envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of Panchayat Raj System?

A

78th Amendment Act of 1995

B

73rd Amendment Act of 1992

C

68th Amendment Act of 1991

D

76th Amendment Act of 1994

GK Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

73rd Amendment Act of 1992

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

66. Which of the following instruct the citizens to protect and preserve natural environment?

A

Preamble

B

Fundamental duties

C

Directive Principles of State Policies

D

Fundamental Rights

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Fundamental duties

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

67. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the equality of opportunity in matters of public employment?

A

Article 14

B

Article 20

C

Article 13

D

Article 16

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 16

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

68. What is the normal term of the Office of Panchayat?

A

6 Years

B

5 years

C

4 years 6 Months

D

4 Years

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

5 years

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

69. When was the last fundamental duty got added to the Indian Constitution?

A

2002

B

1986

C

1995

D

1965

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Fundamental Duties were added in 1976 in the Indian Constitution. There were originally ten Fundamental Duties while the eleventh one was added eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

70. Where is the headquarters of International Fund for Agricultural Development situated?

A

Geneva

B

Moscow

C

New York

D

Rome

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Rome

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

71. The only president of India who was elected unopposed is _____________.

A

V V Giri

B

Giani Zail Singh

C

N Sanjiva Reddy

D

Dr A P J Abdul Kalam

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

N Sanjiva Reddy

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

72. During elections, the observance of "Model Code of Conduct" by political parties is ensured by:

A

Attorney General of India

B

NITI Aiyog

C

Central Vigilance Commission

D

Election Commission of India

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Election Commission of India

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

73. Which was the First language to be conferred as a classical language in India?

A

Sanskrit

B

Tamil

C

Dogri

D

Malayalam

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The first language to be accorded with that status is Tamil. Tamil was declared classical language back in 2004. In the following year, Sanskrit was accorded with the status. In 2008, Telugu and Kannada were conferred with the status followed by Malayalam in 2013.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

74. How many members are present in United Nations Security Council?

A

Fourteen

B

Fifteen

C

Nine

D

Ten

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Fifteen

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

75. What is the normal term of State Legislative Assembly?

A

Three years

B

Six years

C

Five years

D

Four years

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Five years

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

76. When was the Preventive Detention act enacted by the Parliament of India?

A

1950

B

1976

C

1956

D

1966

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

1950

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

77. Which of the following writs in the Indian Constitution literally means "we command"?

A

Quo Warranto

B

Habeas Corpus

C

Mandamus

D

Certiorari

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Mandamus

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

78. What does the Article 51 of the Indian Constitution state?

A

To secure opportunities for healthy development of children

B

To promote International Peace

C

To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor

D

To Protect and improve the environment

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

To promote International Peace

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

79. How many times was the Preamble of the Indian Constitution amended so far?

A

2

B

3

C

1

D

4

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

1

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

80. When is the National Voter`s Day celebrated in India?

A

February 25

B

January 25

C

April 25

D

March 25

Polity Assistant Compiler/Caretaker REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

January 25

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

81. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 has added which of the following parts to the constitution of India?

A

Part-IXB

B

Part-XII

C

Part-XIII

D

Part-IX

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Part-IX

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

82. Which of the following is given under Section 21 of Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019?

A

Rights of Lieutenant Governor to address and send messages to the Legislative Assembly

B

Sessions of Legislative Assembly, prorogation and dissolution

C

Special address by Lieutenant Governor to Legislative Assembly

D

Special address by Chief Minister to Legislative Assembly

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Special address by Lieutenant Governor to Legislative Assembly

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

83. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains how many functional items of Panchayats?

A

18

B

29

C

22

D

26

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

29

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

84. Which among the following was the first country in the world granted universal adult franchise to its citizens in the year 1893?

A

New Zealand

B

Germany

C

United States of America

D

United Kingdom

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

New Zealand

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

85. The Ninth Schedule was included in the Indian Constitution through which amendment?

A

3rd Constitutional Amendment

B

4th Constitutional Amendment

C

2nd Constitutional Amendment

D

1st Constitutional Amendment

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

1st Constitutional Amendment

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

86. Where was the first Panchayati Raj inaugurated by Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1959?

A

Kalahandi, Odisha

B

Nagour, Rajasthan

C

Srikakulam, Andhra Pradesh

D

Birbhum, West Bengal

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Nagour, Rajasthan

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

87. The Right to Education Act,2009 envisages quality and compulsory education to every child in the age group of ________.

A

6 to 14 years

B

10 to 18 years

C

3 to 18 years

D

5 to 10 years

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

6 to 14 years

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

88. When was the universal adult franchise granted in Argentina?

A

1955

B

1958

C

1952

D

1951

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

1951

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

89. In which year, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

A

1992

B

1967

C

2003

D

1954

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added vide 92nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2003 published in the gazette of India on 8.1.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

90. Which among the following is the age criteria for a candidate to contest in the presidential election?

A

Age above 35 years

B

Age above 25 years

C

Age above 21 years

D

Age above 30 years

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Age above 35 years

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

91. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

A

Article 14

B

Article 21

C

Article 12

D

Article 32

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 32

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

92. The Freedom of Press is inherent in which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

A

Article 19

B

Article 361A

C

Article 51A

D

Article 44

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 19

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

93. Article 326

A

Single Party System

B

Two Party System

C

Multi Party System

D

Triple Party System

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Multi Party System

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

94. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution grants the Universal Adult Franchise?

A

Article 426

B

Article 226

C

Article 126

D

Article 326

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 326

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

95. "To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women" is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

A

Directive Principles of State Policy

B

Directive Principles of State Policy

C

Fundamental Duties

D

Citizenship

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Fundamental Duties

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

96. Which of the following ensure the well-being of the entire society?

A

Directive Principles of State Policy

B

Privatization

C

Autocracy

D

Capitalism

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Directive Principles of State Policy

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

97. In which of the following years , the Atlantic Charter was signed?

A

1942

B

1945

C

1941

D

1955

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

1941

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

98. Which among the following countries has veto power in the United Nations Security Council?

A

Japan

B

China

C

India

D

Australia

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

China

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

99. As per section 71, of J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 the accounts of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir shall be kept in such form as the Lieutenant Governor may, after obtaining the advice of ____________.

A

President of India

B

Chief Justice of India

C

Comptroller and Auditor General of India

D

Advocate-General

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

100. 73rd Amendment in the Constitution of India provides for:

A

Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and block levels

B

Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and district levels

C

Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the block and district levels

D

Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district levels

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district levels

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

101. In the absence of Chairman of the Block Development Council, who will preside over the meeting?

A

Vice - Chairman

B

Lieutenant Governor

C

Governor

D

Chief Minister

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Vice - Chairman

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

102. The 74th amendment to the Indian Constitution is related to:

A

Tribunals

B

Panchayats

C

Municipalities

D

Co-operative Societies

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Municipalities

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

103. Which among the following is one of the principal organs of the United Nations?

A

The Food and Agriculture Organisation

B

World Bank

C

UN Women

D

The Economic and Social Council

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Economic and Social Council

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

104. President should function under the aid and advice of who among the following?

A

Chief Justice of India

B

Speaker of the Lok Sabha

C

Council of Ministers

D

The Vice president

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Council of Ministers

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

105. Which of the following is a constitutional protection provided under Article 30 in Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution?

A

All non minorities are exempted from income tax

B

All minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

C

All non minorities are provided reservation in Lok Sabha

D

All minorities are provided reservation in Lok Sabha

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

106. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits:

A

Untouchability

B

Human Trafficking

C

Child labour

D

Dowry

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Child labour

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

107. Article 35 of the Indian Constitution empowers __________ to make legislation to give effect to the provisions of the Fundamental Rights.

A

The State Governors

B

The Parliament

C

The State Legislative Assemblies

D

The Prime Minister

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Parliament

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

108. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society, to promote justice on the basis of equal opportunity?

A

Article 37

B

Article 39A

C

Article 41

D

Article 43A

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 39A

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

109. Which among the following term is used to denote the percentage of eligible voters who cast their votes in an election?

A

Turnout

B

Rigging

C

Booth Capturing

D

Level Playing field

Probability Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Turnout

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

110. When was the universal adult franchise granted in India?

A

1948

B

1947

C

1950

D

1958

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

1950

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

111. How many languages have classical language status in India?

A

Six

B

Five

C

Nine

D

Four

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Six

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

112. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of the members retire every __________ year, and are replaced by newly elected members.

A

Second

B

One

C

Fourth

D

Third

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Second

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

113. Which fundamental duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment?

A

Duty to develop scientific temper

B

Duty to safeguard public property

C

Duty of parents to provide education to his child between the age of 6 and 14 years

D

Duty to vote in public elections

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Duty of parents to provide education to his child between the age of 6 and 14 years

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

114. Who nominates officers of Government as Observers (General Observers and Election Expenditure Observers) for parliamentary and assembly constituencies?

A

Chief Justice of India

B

State Election Commission

C

Election Commission of India

D

Office of Prime Minister

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Election Commission of India

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

115. The predecessor of the United Nations was the:

A

UNEP

B

League of nations

C

WTO

D

UNSC

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

League of nations

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

116. Initially in 1976, how many fundamental duties were inserted in the Constitution?

A

10

B

9

C

11

D

5

Polity Assistant Compiler 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

10

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

117. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution which deals with Panchayats has how many functional items?

A

Twenty Six

B

Eighteen

C

Twenty Nine

D

Fifteen

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Twenty Nine

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

118. When the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 came into force?

A

1993

B

1992

C

1995

D

1975

Polity Sub Auditor 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

1993

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

119. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state

A

Three

B

Five

C

Seven

D

One

Panchayati Raj Act JSA 2021 REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Three

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

120. The 73rd Amendment Act emanates from the:

A

Article 38

B

Article 40

C

Article 44

D

Article 52

Polity Accounts Assistant LAHDC REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 40

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

121. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not apply to which of the following states:

A

Meghalaya

B

Goa

C

Sikkim

D

Himachal Pradesh

Polity Accounts Assistant LAHDC REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland – The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is not applicable to these three States, as the traditional local institutions of self-government exist in these Schedule VI States.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

122. When was zero hour introduced in the parliamentary affairs in India ?

A

1952

B

1962

C

1972

D

1982

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed. Zero Hour is the Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. However, it does not find mention in the rules of procedure. During zero hour, questions are asked about issues of public importance without prior permission. These questions are usually directed against individual ministers.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

123. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the Chief of its Secretariat and is :

A

elected by the Lok Sabha

B

elected by both Houses of Parliament

C

appointed by the Speaker

D

appointed by the President

Polity SSC Statistical Investigators REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Secretary General is the administrative head of the Secretariat of the Lok Sabha. The post of Secretary General is of the rank of the Cabinet Secretary in the Government of India, who is the senior most civil servant to the Indian Government. The incumbent to the post is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha in consultation with the Prime Minister of India and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

124. Who is the competent to dissolve the Parliament ?

A

The President

B

The Cabinet with the concurrence of the Leader of the Opposition

C

By resolution in both Houses of Parliament

D

none of these

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha. When the term, dissolution of Parliament is used, it only means the Lok Sabha, the House of the People, the Lower House of Parliament. Parliament comprises the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha, the Council of States, the Upper House. The first and third have fixed terms of five and six years respectively, the Lok Sabha has a term of five years but can be dissolved earlier.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

125. The authority to prorogue the two Houses of the Parliament rests with the

A

President

B

Vice-President

C

Prime Minister

D

Speaker

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

There are certain constitutional functions which the President has to perform with respect to Parliament. The President of India has the power to summon and prorogue either of the two Houses of Parliament or to dissolve the Lok Sabha. While the Rajya Sabha is a continuing body, the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha vests in the President.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

126. The salaries and allowances payable to the Members of the Parliament are decided by the

A

President

B

Cabinet

C

Parliament

D

Finance Commission

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

After election to Parliament, the members become entitled to certain amenities. These amenities are provided to members with a view to enable them to function effectively as Members of Parliament. Broadly speaking, the amenities provided to the members relate to salaries and allowances, travelling facilities, medical facilities, accommodation, telephones, etc. These are governed by the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954 and the rules made there under.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

127. In Indian Parliament, a bill may be sent to a select committee

A

after the first reading

B

after the second reading

C

after general discussion during second reading

D

at any stage at the discretion of the Speaker

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

When a Bill comes up before a House for general discussion, it is open to that House to refer it to a Select Committee of the House or a Joint Committee of the two Houses. A motion has to be moved and adopted to this effect in the House in which the Bill comes up for consideration. In case the motion adopted is for reference of the Bill to a Joint Committee, the decision is conveyed to the other House requesting them to nominate members of the other House to serve on the Committee. The Select or Joint Committee considers the Bill clause by clause just as the two Houses do. Amendments can be moved to various clauses by members of the Committee.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

128. The joint session of the two Houses of Parliament is convened

A

only in case of national emergency

B

when a bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House

C

taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other House

D

both (2) & (3)

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

In case of a deadlock between the two houses or in a case where more than six months lapse in the other house, the President may summon a joint session of the two houses which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the deadlock is resolved by simple majority. Until now, only three bills: the Dowry Prohibition Act (1961), the Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and the Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002) have been passed at joint sessions

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

129. What is the maximum number of the elected members of Rajya Sabha ?

A

250

B

238

C

245

D

248

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Membership is limited to 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by the President of India for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services. The remainder of the body is elected by the state and territorial legislatures. Terms of office are six years, with one third of the members retiring every two years.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

130. The item "Education" belongs to the :

A

Union List

B

State List

C

Concurrent List

D

Residuary Subjects

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The subjects defined and enlisted under the List-III of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, form the joint domain of both the State Governments and the Union territories of India as well as the Central Government of India under these subjects. This is known as Concurrent List. The practical importance of the Concurrent list, (when adopted in any federation) lies in the fact, that the vesting of the same type of power in two parallel agencies carries, within it, the seeds of a possible conflict. This implies, that the Constitution (of the country concerned) should provide, in advance, a mechanism for resolving such conflict. In India, article 254 of the Constitution primarily seeks to incorporate such a mechanism.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

131. What is the maximum time interval permitted between two sessions of Parliament ?

A

4 months

B

6 months

C

8 months

D

9 months

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The period during which the House meets to conduct its business is called a session. The Constitution empowers the President to summon each House at such intervals that there should not be more than 6 month’s gap between the two sessions. Hence the Parliament must meet at least twice a year. In India, the parliament conducts three sessions each year.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

132. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of :

A

Division of Powers between Centre and States

B

Centralisation of Powers

C

Balance of Powers

D

Separation of Powers

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

In democratic systems of governance based on the trias politica, a fundamental parallel and a fundamental difference exists between presidential systems and constitutional monarchic parliamentary system of government. The parallel is that the three branches of government (legislative, executive, judicial) exist largely independent of each other, with their own prerogatives, domains of activity, and exercises of control over each other. In presidential systems, the incumbent of the Head-of-state is elected to office and, after transfer of power, appoints his administration (like in the United States, with unitary executive) or a government headed by a prime minister is formed within the parliament, based on the elected majority (like in France). The latter might lead to a “cohabitation” where a president and his government belonging to different parties or coalitions.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

133. What is the minimum age prescribed for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha ?

A

25 years

B

21 years

C

30 years

D

35 years

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. A person to be qualified for the membership of the Rajya Sabha should be a citizen of India and make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution; and he must be not less than 30 years of age.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

134. Indian Parliament includes :

A

Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

B

Only Lok Sabha

C

President and Lok Sabha

D

President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body in India. Founded in 1919, the Parliament alone possesses legislative supremacy and thereby ultimate power over all political bodies in India. The Parliament comprises the President of India and the two Houses—Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

135. Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?

A

A member appointed by the President.

B

A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.

C

A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

D

A senior most member of the House.

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker discharges his functions. A member from the Panel of Chairmen presides over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

136. The function of Protem Speaker is to

A

conduct the proceedings of the House in the presence of the Speaker

B

conduct the election in the House in the presence of the Speaker

C

conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker

D

check if the election certificates of members are in order

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

In the first meeting after election in which speaker and vice speaker is selected by members of parliament, that meeting is hold under the senior most member of parliament is called protem speaker.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

137. The “Residuary Powers” (not mentioned in the Union, State or Concurrent lists of the Constitution) are vested in

A

Lok Sabha

B

Parliament of India

C

PM of India

D

Lok Sabha

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Three subject lists, the Union list, the State list, and the Concurrent list, define the legislative powers of each level of government. All residuary powers are vested with the Parliament of India. In the U.S.A. and Australia the residuary powers are given to the States. In Canada they vest in the Union.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

138. Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?

A

Public Accounts Committee

B

Estimates Committee

C

Committee on Public Undertakings

D

Committee on Government Assurances

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member after his election to the Committee, is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

139. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right.

A

Right to privacy

B

Equality before law

C

Abolition of untouchability

D

Right to form associations or unions

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Judicial activism has brought the Right to Privacy within the realm of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court of India has construed “right to privacy” as a part of the Fundamental Right to “protection of life and personal liberty” under Article 21 of the Constitution, which states “no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedures established by law”. In the context of personal liberty, the Supreme Court has observed “those who feel called upon to deprive other persons of their personal liberty in the discharge of what they conceive to be their duty must strictly and scrupulously observe the forms and rules of the law”.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

140. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha ?

A

The Chairman, Rajya Sabha

B

The President

C

The Joint-session of Parliament

D

none of these

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third Members of Rajya Sabha retire after every second year. A member who is elected for a full term serves for a period of six years.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

141. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in the case of

A

Money Bills

B

Non-money bills

C

Setting up of new All-India Services

D

Amendment of the Constitution

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Under the Constitution the Rajya Sabha is granted some powers exclusively. The Rajya Sabha, under Article 249, may by a special majority of two-thirds votes adopt a resolution asking the Parliament to make laws on subjects of the State list, in the national interest. Secondly, Rajya Sabha can take steps to create All India Services by adopting resolutions supported by special majority in the national interest. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two- third of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, to create one or more all- India services, Parliament by law may provide for such services. Thirdly, Rajya Sabha has the exclusive right to initiate a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

142. No Money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the

A

Vice-President

B

President

C

Prime Minister

D

Finance Minister

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The money bill originates only in the Lok Sabha. No money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the president.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

143. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not?

A

President

B

Speaker of Lok Sabha

C

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

D

Finance Minister

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Under the Constitution, the Speaker enjoys a special position insofar as certain matters pertaining to the relations between the two Houses of Parliament are concerned. He certifies Money Bills and decides on money matters by reason of the Lok Sabha`s overriding powers in financial matters.It is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha who presides over joint sittings called in the event of disagreement between the two Houses on a legislative measure. As regards recognition of parliamentary parties it is the Speaker who lays down the necessary guidelines for such recognition.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

144. The maximum permissible gap between two sessions of the Parliament is

A

3 months

B

4 months

C

4 months

D

6 months

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 85 of the Indian Constitution states that six months must not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the succeeding session. In other words, the interval between two sessions must not exceed six months.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

145. What can be the maximum interval between two Sessions of Parliament?

A

Three months

B

Four months

C

Six months

D

Nine months

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Under Article 85 of the Indian Constitution, the President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament from time to time and to dissolve the Lok Sabha. It is also provided that six months must not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the succeeding session. In other words, the interval between two sessions must not exceed six months.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

146. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within :

A

10 days

B

14 days

C

20 days

D

30 days

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

In the Westminster system (and, colloquially, in the United States), a money bill or supply bill is a bill that solely concerns taxation or government spending (also known as appropriation of money), as opposed to changes in public law. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha (the upper house of parliament, elected by the state and territorial legislatures or appointed by the president). The Rajya Sabha may not amend money bills but can recommend amendments. A money bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to have passed both houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

147. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?

A

within one month

B

within two months

C

within four months

D

within six months

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The President of India has the power to declare three types of emergency. They are National Emergency, State Emergency and Financial Emergency. A proclamation of National Emergency has to be passed in each house of Parliament by more than half of the total members and at least by two-third of the members present and voting. This proclamation will be invalid if it is not passed by both houses within one month. It has to be passed first by the Rajya Sabha if the Lok Sabha stands dissolved at the time of proclamation of National Emergency. It has to be passed within one month of Lok Sabha being reconstituted; otherwise the proclamation will be invalid.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

148. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?

A

Governors of States

B

Chief Justice and Judges of High Court

C

Vice-President

D

Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Vice President of India is the second-highest office in India, after the President. The Vice President is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting members of both houses of the Parliament. The Vice President would ascend to the Presidency upon the death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations leading to the vacancy in the Office of President.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

149. Parliamentary form of Government is also known as :

A

Responsive Government

B

Responsible Government

C

Federal Government

D

Presidential Government

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Responsible government is a conception of a system of government that embodies the principle of parliamentary accountability, the foundation of the Westminster system of parliamentary democracy. Governments (the equivalent of the executive branch) in Westminster democracies are responsible to parliament rather than to the monarch, or, in a colonial context, to the imperial government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

150. In Indian Republic, the real executive authority rests with the :

A

Prime Minister

B

President

C

Bureaucrats

D

Council of Ministers

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The President is the constitutional head of Executive of the Union. Real executive power vests in a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as head. Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President who shall, in exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the House of the People.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

151. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within :

A

1 month

B

6 months

C

3 months

D

1 year

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 62 of the Indian Constitution says that An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy, and the person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of Article 56, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

152. Stability of the Government is assured in :

A

Parliamentary Form of Government.

B

Presidential Form of Government.

C

Plural Executive System

D

Direction Democracy

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The presidential system has several advantages. As the President is selected separately from the Legislature, the President and Executive branch are not subject (in most cases) to any form of vote of no confidence. As such, this leads to continuity in the Executive branch, as the Executive will remain stable over the term of the President. Besides, there is a clear demarcation between the Executive and the Legislative branch, allowing for a more effective set of checks-and-balances to be placed on both branches by the other.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

153. Which state was formed after the amendment of articles 239A and 240?

A

Arunachal Pradesh

B

Uttrakhand

C

Sikkim

D

Chhattisgarh

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Thirty-seventh Amendment of 1975 amended Articles 239-A and 240 and made Arunachal Pradesh a Union Territory and provided for the creation of a legislature and a Council of Ministers for the territory.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

154. Which Article of the Constitution deals with removal/ dismissal of a Civil Servant?

A

Article 25

B

Article 56

C

Article 311

D

Article 377

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 311 of Constitution of India deals with dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. It states that no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

155. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with

A

Emergency Provisions

B

Right to Primary Education

C

Right to Information

D

Amending Procedure

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment process. It empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

156. The 73rd Constitutional amendment act is related to :

A

Foreign Exchange

B

Finance Commission

C

Panchayat Raj

D

RBI

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 is related to Panchayati Raj in India. It added Part IX of the Constitution of India, related to Panchayats, and the Eleventh Schedule to the Consttion which deals with matters on which the Panchayats may be devolved with powers and responsibility by the State Legislatures by law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

157. Reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the service has been provided

A

Article 375

B

Article 315

C

Article 335

D

Article 365

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 335 of the Indian Constitution deals with the claims of SCs and STs to services and posts, without sacrificing the efficiency of administration. However, the 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 provides for making of any provision in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters of promotion to the public services of the Centre and the states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

158. Which Article of the Constitution enjoins the State to establish Village Panchayat?

A

Article 32

B

Article 40

C

Article 44

D

Article 57

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 40 of the Constitution lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. It is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

159. The Election Commission is established under the Article

A

Article-355

B

Article-256

C

Article-324

D

Article-320

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of elections to both Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures is vested in the Election Commission of India. The same article authorizes the Commission to conduct the elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

160. Which one of the Constitutional amendment has established Panchayati Raj Institution ?

A

72nd Amendment Act

B

71st Amendment Act

C

73rd Amendment Act

D

78th Amendment Act

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The 73rd amendment of the Constitution was enacted in 1992, to enshrine in the Constitution certain basic and essential features of Panchayat Raj Institutions. It introduced a three tier Panchayati Raj system at the Village, Intermediate (Block) and District levels

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

161. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended ?

A

Three times

B

Two times

C

Once

D

Not amended

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The 42nd Amendment of 1976 amended the Preamble of the Constitution. It changed the characterization of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic". It also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

162. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India to be a

A

Union of States

B

Federal State

C

Quasi-Federal State

D

Unitary State

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

According to Article 1 which deals with name and territory of the Union, India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. It also says that the territory of India shall consist of: The territories of the states, The Union territories and any territory that may be acquired.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

163. Which of the following article of IPC is related to unnatural sex ?

A

370

B

374

C

376

D

377

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Section 377 of Indian Penal Code (1860) deals with unnatural sex. As per this section, oral and anal sex have been treated as unnatural sex and made illegal in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

164. Which Article empowers the President to impose Financial Emergency ?

A

Article 356

B

Article 364

C

Article 352

D

Article 360

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

According to Article 360, if the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

165. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunities for all citizen in Public employment ?

A

Article–22

B

Article–16

C

Article–20

D

Article–25

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 16 of the Indian Constitution deals with equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. It states that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

166. Which one of the following languages is not specified in the Eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

A

Urdu

B

English

C

Sindhi

D

Sanskrit

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages. English is not one of them.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

167. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

A

Article 33

B

Article 19

C

Article 21

D

Article 25

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Parliament may restrict the application of the Fundamental Rights to members of the Indian Armed Forces and the police, in order to ensure proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline, by a law made under Article 33.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

168. Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the “Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution”?

A

Article 14

B

Article 19

C

Article 370

D

Article 32

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. According to this right, a person can move the Supreme Court in case of violation of their fundamental rights. In the Constitution, this right is enshrined in Article 32.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

169. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in the Supreme Court ?

A

323 A

B

329

C

343

D

343 K

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Central Administrative Tribunal was established in pursuance of Article 323-A of the Constitution. According to this article, the Parliament may by law exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts, except the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136 with respect to the disputes or complaints regarding the CAT.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

170. By which Constitution Amendment Act, Right to Property ceased to remain a fundamental right?

A

44th

B

42nd

C

43rd

D

45th

Polity JKP SI REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The 44th amendment of 1978 eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

171. Which has become a legal right under 44th Amendment?

A

Right to Education

B

Right to Property

C

Right to Judicial remedies

D

Right to Work

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. However, in another part of the Constitution, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

172. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external aggression or armed revolt through

A

Article 352

B

Article 356

C

Article 360

D

Article 368

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Under article 352 of Constitution, the President can declare such an emergency (caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion) only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

173. Article -1 of the Indian Constitution declares “India that is Bharat” is a:

A

Union of States

B

Federal State with Unitary features

C

Unitary State with federal features

D

Federal State

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 1 under Part I of the Constitution of India states that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.”

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

174. By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?

A

42nd

B

44th

C

61st

D

73rd

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989 lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

175. By which constitutional amendment political defections were banned?

A

The Fiftieth amendment of 1984

B

The Fifty-third amendment of 1986

C

The Fifty-fourth amendment of 1986

D

The Fifty-second amendment of 1985

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as the Anti-Defection Law was inserted by the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. It has provisions for Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

176. Which amendments to the Constitution provide for the reservation of one-third seats in the Municipal Boards and Village Panchayats for women?

A

73rd and 74th Amendments

B

83rd and 84th Amendments

C

72nd and 73rd Amendments

D

74th and 75th Amendments and Oridinary Law (SSC Combined Matric Level

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The constitution`s 73rd & 74th amendments were passed by parliament in December 1992. The 73rd amendment added Part IX (The Panchayats) and the 74th amendment added part IXA (The Municipalities) in the constitution. It provides the statutory reservations of 1/3rd seats in the Municipal boars & Village Panchayats for Women, which provides the opportunity of formal involvement of women in development through political processes.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

177. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 deals with

A

Union Terrotries

B

Defection and disqualification

C

Extending reservation

D

Abolition of privy purses

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment of 1985 amended articles 101, 102, 190 and 191; and inserted Schedule 10 to the Constitution of India. It dealt with the Anti Defection Law and provided disqualification of members from parliament and assembly in case of defection from one party to other.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

178. The two words that were inserted by the 42nd Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution are

A

Secular, Democratic

B

Sovereign, Democratic

C

Socialist, Secular

D

Secular, Republic

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, declared India to be a socialist and secular republic, and as securing fraternity assuring the unity "and integrity" of the Nation, by adding these words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

179. India has been described under Article-1 of the Constitution as a

A

Federation

B

Federation, with a strong unitary bias

C

Confederation

D

Union of States

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States; the sates and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule; and the territory of India shall comprise the territories of the States, the Union territories specified in the First Schedule; and such other territories as may be acquired.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

180. According to Article 75 (3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the

A

President

B

Parliament

C

Lok Sabha

D

Rajya Sabha

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

According to Article 75 (3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

181. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected members on the ground of defection?

A

8th

B

9th

C

11th

D

10th

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as the `Anti-Defection Law` was inserted by the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1985. It has provisions for Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

182. Under the writ of Habeas Corpus, the Court intervenes and asks the authority to provide the reasons for such detention. All proceedings under Article 226 are either civil or criminal. When a person asks for a writ of Habeas Corpus, that is a criminal proceeding. But when a person asks for any other writ than the Habeas Corpus, the proceedings are necessarily civil proceedings.

A

civil proceeding

B

criminal proceeding

C

Judicial proceeding

D

Statutory proceeding

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Under the writ of Habeas Corpus, the Court intervenes and asks the authority to provide the reasons for such detention. All proceedings under Article 226 are either civil or criminal. When a person asks for a writ of Habeas Corpus, that is a criminal proceeding. But when a person asks for any other writ than the Habeas Corpus, the proceedings are necessarily civil proceedings.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

183. Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of

A

the Council of Ministers

B

the Speaker of Lok Sabha

C

the President of India

D

the Cabinet Ministers

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 74 of the Constitution of the Republic of India provides for a Council of Ministers which shall aid the President in the exercise of his functions. Article 75 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

184. The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to

A

strengthen Panchayti Raj

B

strength Rural Institutes

C

strength urban Institutes

D

none of these

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 accorded the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) a constitutional status. The main features of the 73rd Amendment Act are the following: Constitution of a three tier structure of Panchayats in every state (at village, intermediate and district levels) having a population of twenty lakhs; Fixed tenure for Panchayat bodies (Article 243E); etc.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

185. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a State due to the failure of the constitutional machinery ?

A

352

B

356

C

360

D

350

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Under article 356 of the Indian Constitution, State emergency is declared on failure of constitutional machinery in a state. During such an emergency, the President can take over the entire work of the executive, and the Governor administers the state in the name of the President. the Legislative Assembly can be dissolved or may remain in suspended animation. The Parliament makes laws on the 66 subjects of the state list

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

186. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution upholds

A

land reforms legislation in India

B

diplomatic privileges and immunities

C

special status of Jammu and Kashmir State

D

duties and rights of Lokpal

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 370 of the Indian constitution grants special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. Similar protections for unique status exist in tribal areas of India including those in Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Nagaland however it is only for the state of Jammu and Kashmir that the accession of the state to India is still a matter of dispute between India and Pakistan still on the agenda of the UN Security Council.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

187. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution provides for

A

equality before law

B

equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

C

abolition of titles

D

abolition of untouchability

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

188. How many languages are contained in the VIIIth schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

A

18

B

22

C

16

D

12

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages. At the time the constitution was enacted, inclusion in this list meant that the language was entitled to representation on the Official Languages Commission, and that the language would be one of the bases that would be drawn upon to enrich Hindi, the official language of the Union. Via the 92nd Constitutional amendment 2003, 4 new languages – Bodo, Maithili, Dogri, and Santhali – were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

189. The articles 17 and 18 of constitution provide

A

social equality

B

economic equality

C

political equality

D

religious equality

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (1) of article 370 of the Constitution, the President, with the concurrence of the Government of the State of Jammu and Kashmir made the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 which came into force on 14/5/1954. This article specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communications,(matters specified in the instrument of accession) the Indian Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all other laws. Thus the state’s residents lived under a separate set of laws, including those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as compared to other Indians.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

190. Under which article of Constitution does Jammu and Kashmir enjoys special constitutional position ?

A

Article 356

B

Article 124

C

Article 170

D

Article 370

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (1) of article 370 of the Constitution, the President, with the concurrence of the Government of the State of Jammu and Kashmir made the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 which came into force on 14/5/1954. This article specifies that except for Defence, Foreign Affairs, Finance and Communications,(matters specified in the instrument of accession) the Indian Parliament needs the State Government’s concurrence for applying all other laws. Thus the state’s residents lived under a separate set of laws, including those related to citizenship, ownership of property, and fundamental rights, as compared to other Indians.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

191. How many schedules does the Constitution of India contain ?

A

9

B

10

C

11

D

12

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Schedules are lists in the Constitution that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government. First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4)- This lists the states and territories of India, lists any changes to their borders and the laws used to make that change. Twelfth Schedule (Article 243-W)— Municipalities (urban local government).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

192. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj ?

A

Article. 36

B

Article. 39

C

Article. 40

D

Article 48

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

During the drafting of the Constitution of India, Panchayati Raj Institutions were placed in the nonjusticiable part of the Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy, as Article 40.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

193. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form ?

A

Article 16

B

Article 17

C

Article 18

D

Article 15

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law. The Untouchability Offences Act of 1955 (renamed to Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976) provided penalties for preventing a person from entering a place of worship or from taking water from a tank or well.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

194. Which Article of the Indian Constitution includes the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens?

A

Article 50A

B

Article 50B

C

Article 51A

D

Article 51B

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 51A became a part of the Indian Constitution on December 18, 1976 by virtue of the Constitutional (Forty Second) Amendment Act 1976. The new Part IVA was titled as Fundamental Duties.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

195. Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discrimination by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution ?

A

Place of birth

B

Race

C

Language

D

Caste

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 15 is about prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It states that no citizen shall, on ground only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to: access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained whole or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of general public.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

196. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides :

A

6 freedoms

B

7 freedoms

C

8 freedoms

D

9 freedoms

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The right to freedom in Article 19 guarantees the following six freedoms: Freedom of speech and expression, which enable an individual to participate in public activities; Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms; Freedom to form associations or unions; Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India and freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

197. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees Indian citizens :

A

Equal protection of laws

B

Equality before law

C

Equal distribution of economic resources

D

Equality before law and equal protection of the laws

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 14 of the constitution guarantees that all citizens shall be equally protected by the laws of the country. It means that the State cannot discriminate any of the Indian citizens on the basis of their caste, creed, colour, sex, gender, religion or place of birth.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

198. Which of the following sets of Articles deals with `Emergency Provisions` ?

A

Articles 32 and 226

B

Articles 350 and 351

C

Articles 352, 356 and 360

D

Articles 335, 336 and 337

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Emergency Provisions are mentioned from Article 352 to Article 360 of the Indian Constitution. Article 352: Proclamation of Emergency - due to external intrusion or war; Article 356: Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States; and Article 360: Provisions as to financial emergency.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

199. What provision in the Constitution enabled the Central Government to impose the service tax and to expand its span ?

A

List I, Schedule VII

B

List III, Schedule VII

C

Residuary Powers under Article 248

D

Emergency Powers

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Under the Residuary powers of legislation enumerated in Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

200. What Constitutional provision enables the Central Government to provide reservations in jobs and educational institutions for the weaker sections of the society ?

A

Article 14

B

Article 18

C

Article 16

D

Article 46

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 16 of the Constitution of India is a bundle of contradictions, as on the one hand it deals with equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, and, on the other, it enables the government to provide for reservation in public employment. Article 16 provides that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in the matters of employment or appointment to any office under the State. This Article also provides that no citizen shall be ineligible for any office or employment under the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

201. During emergency, imposed under Art. 352, which of the following Constitutional provisions stands suspended ?

A

Directive Principles of State Policy

B

Amendment Procedures

C

Fundamental Rights

D

Judicial Review

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

National emergency under article 352 of the Indian Constitution is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. In such an emergency, Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended. However, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original Constitution. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

202. Article-32 of the Indian constitution relates to :

A

Right against exploitation

B

Right to religion

C

Right to constitutional remedies

D

Right to equality

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The sole object of the Article 32 of the Constitution of India is the enforcement of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India. By including Article 32 in the Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court has been made the protector and guarantor of these Rights.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

203. Which Article of the Indian constitution provides for the employer to give maternity benefits to its employees ?

A

Article-41

B

Article-42

C

Article-43

D

Article-44

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 42 of the Indian Constitution has provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief. It comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

204. Constitution of India considers free and compulsory education to children up to–

A

10 Years

B

14 Years

C

18 Years

D

21 Years

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21 A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21 A, means that every child has a right to full time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

205. Under which Article of the Constitution can an Emergency be declared in India on account of war or external aggression ?

A

Article 356

B

Article 352

C

Article 353

D

Article 354

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi to escape conviction). The President can declare such an emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month. Such an emergency can be imposed for six months. It can be extended by six months by repeated parliamentary approval.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

206. Where is the objective of “social justice” articulated in the Constitution of India ?

A

Article 14

B

Article 15

C

Article 16

D

Preamble

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

In concept social justice is very well articulated in the Constitution of India (1950). The Preamble of our Constitution use the term social justice - social, economic and political, the equality of status and opportunity is provided by the Constitution makers for futuristic development of the country.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

207. Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following ?

A

Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendation

B

Land Reforms

C

To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages

D

Panchayati Raj System

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 243 of the Indian Constitution deals with panchayati raj. It defines what a district, or gram sabha, or panchayat, means. It states that “Panchayat” means an institution (by whatever name called) of self government constituted under Article 243B, for the rural areas”.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

208. From the following languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution pick out the one which is the official language of a State :

A

Kashmiri

B

Urdu

C

Sindhi

D

Nepali

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Kashmiri language is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India, and is a part of the Sixth Schedule in the constitution of the Jammu and Kashmir. Along with other regional languages mentioned in the Sixth Schedule, as well as Hindi and Urdu, the Kashmiri language is to be developed in the state. Some Kashmiri speakers frequently use Hindi as a second language, though the most frequently used second language is Urdu. Since November 2008, the Kashmiri language has been made a compulsory subject in all schools in the Valley up to the secondary level.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

209. The following article of the Indian Constitution abolished the practice of untouchability.

A

Article 14

B

Article 18

C

Article 17

D

Article

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability. Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law. The Untouchability Offences Act of 1955 (renamed to Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976) provided penalties for preventing a person from entering a place of worship or from taking water from a tank or well.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

210. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was for the first time amended by the

A

24th Amendment

B

42nd Amendment

C

44th Amendment

D

none of these

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document. As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a “sovereign democratic republic”. In 1976 the Forty-second Amendment changed this to read “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

211. A law can be enacted, or executive order issued, even contrary to Article 19, during proclamation of emergency

A

caused by war or external aggression

B

caused by internal armed rebellion

C

caused by constitutional breakdown

D

caused by financial crisis

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 358 protects both legislative and executive action taken after the proclamation of emergency. National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi to escape conviction). In such an emergency, Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended. However, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original Constitution. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

212. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good State and a bad citizen makes a bad State” ?

A

Plato

B

Rousseau

C

Aristole

D

Laski

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The state is a human institution. The population is, therefore, an essential element of the state. However, the population can constitute a state only when it is united by the conditions of interdependence, conscious-ness of common interest and general regard for a set of common rules of behaviour and institutions. In addition to the size of the population the quality of the population inhabiting the state is also equally important. Aristotle maintained that a good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

213. Despotism is possible in a

A

One Party state

B

Two Party state

C

Multi Party state

D

Two and Multi Party state

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Despotism is a form of government in which a single entity rules with absolute power. That entity may be an individual, as in an autocracy, or it may be a group. In its classical form, despotism is a state in which a single individual (the despot) wields all the power and authority embodying the state, and everyone else is a subsidiary person. This form of despotism was common in the first forms of statehood and civilization; the Pharaoh of Egypt is exemplary of the classical despot. Colloquially, despot has been applied pejoratively to a person, particularly a head of state or government, who abuses their power and authority to oppress their people, subjects or subordinates. In this sense, it is similar to the pejorative connotations that have likewise arisen with the term tyrant

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

214. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by

A

Edward Stone

B

Le Corbusier

C

Edwin Lutyens

D

Tarun Dutt

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The British architect Edwin Landseer Lutyens, a major member of the city-planning process, was given the primary architectural responsibility of the Rashtrapati Bhavan. The palace developed very similarly to the original sketches which Lutyens sent Herbert Baker from Shimla on June 14, 1912. Lutyens’ design is grandly classical overall, with colours and details inspired by Indian architecture.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

215. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government ?

A

China

B

USA

C

Cuba

D

Beligum

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Based on a broad definition of a basic federal political system, there are two or more levels of government that exist within an established territory and govern through common institutions with overlapping or shared powers as prescribed by a constitution. An example of a federal state is the United States; under the United States Constitution, power is shared between the federal government of the United States and the U.S. states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

216. Which one of the following is described as the Fourth Estate?

A

Judiciary

B

Media

C

Legislature

D

Executive

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Fourth Estate (or fourth estate) is a societal or political force or institution whose influence is not consistently or officially recognized. “Fourth Estate” most commonly refers to the news media; especially print journalism or “The Press”. Thomas Carlyle attributed the origin of the term to Edmund Burke, who used it in a parliamentary debate in 1787 on the opening up of Press reporting of the House of Commons of Great Britain.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

217. What is the colour of the “Dharma Chakra” in the middle of our national flag ?

A

Sea blue

B

Black

C

Navy blue

D

Green

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The most visible use of the Ashoka Chakra today is at the centre of the National flag of the Republic of India (adopted on 22 July 1947), where it is rendered in a Navy-blue colour on a White background, by replacing the symbol of Charkha (Spinning wheel) of the pre-independence versions of the flag.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

218. How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Chakra depicted on the National Flag of India ?

A

16

B

20

C

24

D

32

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction of the Buddhist Dharma chakra, represented with 24 spokes. It is so called because it appears on a number of edicts of Ashoka, most prominent among which is the Lion Capital of Sarnath. The 12 out of 24 spokes represent the twelve casual links taught by The Buddha. These 12 in reverse represent a total 24 spokes representing the Life-The Dhamma (Pali).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

219. What is the motto inscribed under our national emblem ?

A

Satyam, Shivam

B

Satyam, Sarvatra, Sundaram

C

Satyameva Jayate

D

Jai Hind

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Satyameva Jayate is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Upon independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. The motto of the Czech Republic and its predecessor Czechoslovakia, “Pravda vitezi” (“Truth Prevails”) has a similar meaning.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

220. Which of the following is the biggest head of non-plan expenditure of Government of India ?

A

Interest payments

B

Subsidies

C

Defence

D

Salaries and Wages

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The central government expenditure itself is divided into two parts –plan expenditure and non-plan expenditure. Non Plan Expenditure is money that’s spent on sustaining the country like defense, postal deficit, subsidies etc. and Plan Expenditure is the money that is spent on improving the country like the money spent on dams, roads etc. Interest Payments and Debt Servicing comprise more than 30 per cent of this expenditure.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

221. From which historical work were the words “Satyameva Jayate” appearing under the national emblem taken ?

A

Bhagawad Gita

B

Rig Veda

C

Ramayana

D

Mundaka Upanishad

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Satyameva Jayate (Truth alone Triumphs) is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Upon independence of India, it was adopted as the national motto of India. It is inscribed in Devanagari script at the base of the national emblem. The emblem and words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ are inscribed on one side of all Indian currency. The emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka which was erected around 250 BC at Sarnath, near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

222. Plural Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of

A

State

B

Religion

C

Individuals

D

Associations

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The pluralist theory of sovereignty is a reaction to monistic or legal theory of sovereignty. To monistic theory state is supreme association and all other associations are the creation of state and their existence depends on the will of the sovereign power. The pluralist theory rejects this and tries to establish that there is no single source of authority that is all competent and comprehensive. Pluralists believe that state enjoys a privileged position because of its wider jurisdiction, which covers all the individuals and associations within its boundary. The pluralist also rejects the distinction between state and government. An exponent of pluralist theory Robert M.Maclver propounds that state is one of the several human associations, although it exercises unique functions. Important feature of the state is supremacy of law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

223. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was:

A

Nargis Dutt

B

Shabana Azmi

C

Madhubala

D

Meena Kumari

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Nargis Dutt, born Fatima Rashid but known by her screen name, Nargis, was an Indian film actress. In early 1970s, she became the first patron of Spastics Society of India, and her subsequent work with the organisation brought her recognition as a social worker, and later a Rajya Sabha nomination in 1980.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

224. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by

A

Plato

B

John Locke

C

Rousseau

D

Austin

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

In Jean-Jacques Rousseau’s (1712–1778) definition of popular sovereignty, he considers the people to be the legitimate sovereign. He condemned the distinction between the origin and the exercise of sovereignty, a distinction upon which constitutional monarchy or representative democracy is founded.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

225. The minimum number of workers who can form a Trade Union and get it registered under Trade Union Act ?

A

7

B

25

C

100

D

50

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

As per the Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 2001, no trade union of workmen shall be registered unless at least 10% or 100, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7 workmen engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which it is connected are the members of such trade union on the date of making of application for registration. It also states that a registered trade union of workmen shall at all times continue to have not less than 10% or 100 of the workmen, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7 persons engaged or employed in the establishment or industry with which it is connected, as its members. So the minimum member required to start a trade union is 7, the only condition is they must have same problem in common.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

226. Fabianism is closely related to:

A

Fascism

B

Scientific socialism

C

Democratic socialism

D

Liberalism

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Fabian Society is a British socialist organization whose purpose is to advance the principles of democratic socialism via gradualist and reformist, rather than revolutionary, means. It is best known for its initial ground-breaking work beginning late in the 19th century and continuing up to World War I. The society laid many of the foundations of the Labour Party and subsequently affected the policies of states emerging from the decolonization of the British Empire, especially India

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

227. Governance through trade union organizations is known as :

A

Guild Socialism

B

Fabian Socialism

C

Syndicalism

D

Liberalism

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Syndicalism is a type of economic system proposed as a replacement for capitalism and an alternative to state socialism, which uses Confederations of collectivized trade unions or industrial unions. It is a form of socialist economic corporatism that advocates interest aggregation of multiple non-competitive categorised units to negotiate and manage an economy. For adherents, labour unions are the potential means of both overcoming economic aristocracy and running society fairly in the interest of the majority, through union democracy. Industry in a syndicalist system would be run through cooperative confederations and mutual aid.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

228. The Constitution of India was framed by:

A

Planning Commission

B

Constituent Assembly

C

President

D

Working Committee

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constitution of India was framed by Constituent Assembly that was formed on 9 December 1946. It was formed following negotiations between Indian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India. The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

229. Indian Constitution came into force on

A

15th August, 1947

B

26th January, 1950

C

26th November, 1948

D

6th November, 1948

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949.Republic Day honours the date on which the Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950 replacing the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

230. Which type of democracy do we follow in India?

A

Direct

B

Presidential

C

Representative

D

Dictatorship

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

India follows representative democracy that is also known as indirect democracy. It is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected officials representing a group of people, as opposed to direct democracy. Simply put, a representative democracy is a system of government in which all eligible citizens vote on representatives to pass laws for them.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

231. The Constitution __________.

A

is silent on the President`s re-election to the office.

B

allows re-election of a person to the President`s post

C

restricts a person to remain President for only two terms.

D

has been amended to allow a person only one term as President.

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

According to Article 57 of the Constitution, a President is eligible for re-election to that office. The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

232. In which year the constituent assembly of India started functioning?

A

1945

B

1946

C

1947

D

1948

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

On 29 August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. The Constituent assembly adopted the constitution on 26 November 1949 once the process of drafting was completed.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

233. What is the minimum age required to become Vice President?

A

30 years

B

35 years

C

25 years

D

42 years

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

35 Years of age is required for President, Vice President and Governor.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

234. By which of the following Act the system of Dyarchy was introduced at the centre?

A

1909

B

1919

C

1935

D

1947

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Government of India Act 1935 provided for dyarchy at the Centre. Under this act, the executive authority of the centre was vested in the Governor. It ended the system of dyarchy at the provincial level introduced by Government of India Act 1919.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

235. Which High Court has Maximum number of Judges?

A

Allahabad High Court

B

Patna High Court

C

Delhi High Court

D

Sikkim High Court

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Allahabad High Court, has the largest number (160) of judges while Sikkim High Court has the smallest number (3) of judges.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

236. There are how many High courts in India?

A

45

B

25

C

20

D

15

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

There are 25 High Courts in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

237. In which of the following Acts the territorial division of governance in India was done ?

A

Government of India Act, 1858

B

Indian Councils Act, 1861

C

Indian Councils Act, 1892

D

Government of India Act, 1861

Polity SSC CPO REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Government of India The Government of India Act 1858, known as the Act for the Good Government of India, provided for liquidation of East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. The Company`s territories in India were vested in the Queen, the Company ceasing to exercise its power and control over these territories. India was to be governed in the Queen`s name. Act 1858, known as the Act for the Good Government of India, provided for liquidation of East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. The Company`s territories in India were vested in the Queen, the Company ceasing to exercise its power and control over these territories. India was to be governed in the Queen`s name.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

238. The fundamental duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of –

A

Giving more importance to the fundamental rights

B

Curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities

C

Preventing abuse of Fundamental rights

D

Giving more power to the executive

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities can make any country great.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

239. Which one is competent to amend the law relating to Indian Citizenship

A

President

B

Prime Minister

C

Parliament

D

Supreme Court

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Indian Constitution vests the Parliament with the power regarding Citizenship in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

240. From which of the following country Indian Constitution borrowed the feature ‘The written Constitution’ ?

A

USSR

B

UK

C

US

D

Japan

Polity SSC CPO REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The framers of Indian Constitution adopted the feature of `written constitution` from USA. The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest written constitution in the world. The other features borrowed from the US Constitution include: an executive head of state known as President; provision of fundamental rights; independence of the judiciary; etc.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

241. Name of the country from which the constitutional features of procedures for amendment was borrowed by India.

A

Britain

B

America

C

South Africa

D

Germany

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The makers of Indian constitution borrowed the feature of amendment procedures from South Africa. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. Besides, the provision of indirect election of members of the Rajya Sabha was also borrowed from the South African constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

242. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent Assembly first in 1935?

A

Nehru

B

Gandhi

C

J.P. Narayan

D

M. N. Roy

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The idea of Constituent assembly of India was first put forward by Manabendra Nath Roy or MN Roy in 1934. In 1935, it became the official demand of Indian National Congress. It was accepted in August 1940 in the August Offer; however, it was constituted under the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946. The constituent assembly drafted the constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

243. Which among them take oath to uphold the constitution and the laws?

A

CJI

B

President

C

Prime minister

D

State Governors

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Judiciaries oath is different.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

244. The idea of parliamentary form of government is adapted from

A

US

B

UK

C

Ireland

D

USSR

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Popular sovereignty is the principle that the authority of the government is created and sustained by the consent of its people, through their elected representatives (Rule by the People), who are the source of all political power. It is also known as sovereignty of the people.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

245. Constitutional Monarchy means :

A

The King writes the constitution

B

The King interprets the constitution

C

The King exercises power granted by constitution

D

The King is elected by the the people

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Constitutional monarchy is a form of government in which a king or queen acts as Head of State. The Sovereign/Monarch governs according to the constitution - that is, according to rules, rather than according to his or her own free will. The ability to make and pass legislation resides with an elected Parliament.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

246. When India got freedom in 1947, Which was the ruling Party in Britain?

A

National British Party

B

Labour Party

C

Liberal Democrats

D

Scottish National Party

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

In 1947 the British Government was led by the Labour Party with Clement Attlee as Prine Minister.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

247. Autocracy means ______

A

Rule by few

B

Rule by King

C

Absolute rule by one

D

Rule by the representatives of the People

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

An autocracy is a system of government in which supreme power is concentrated in the hands of one person, whose decisions are subject to neither external legal restraints nor regularized mechanisms of popular control. Both totalitarianism and military dictatorship are often identified with, but need not be, an autocracy.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

248. Universal adult franchise shows that India is a country which is

A

Secular

B

Socalist

C

Democratic

D

Sovereign

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

India has a democratic set up with all citizens having equal rights. This could have been farther from truth if the concept of universal adult suffrage was not adopted. Article 326 of the Indian Constitution grants universal adult suffrage which is one of the defining features of a democratic set up.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

249. Who was the first woman chief justice of high court in India?

A

G. Rohini

B

Anna Chandey

C

Meera Reddy

D

Leela Seth

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Leila Seth (20 October 1930 – 5 May 2017) was an Indian judge who served as the first woman judge on the Delhi High Court and became the first woman CJI.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

250. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution

A

B. R. Ambedkar

B

Alladi Krishnaswamy

C

Rajendra Prasad

D

Gopalachari Ayyangar

Polity SSC CAPF SI REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Drafting Committee consisted of 7 members: Dr B R Ambedkar (Chairman), N Gopalaswami Ayengar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr K M Munshi, S.M. Saadullah, N Madhava Rau (replaced B L Mitter) and T.T. Krishnamachari (replaced D P Khaitan). Dr. Rajendra Prasad headed the Rules of Procedure Committee and Steering Committee.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

251. Who generally does not vote in Loksabha because his vote is Decisive?

A

Speaker

B

Prime Minister

C

Chief Justice Of India

D

Governor

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Speaker votes only in case of tie.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

252. Which one of the following judgements stated that `Secularism` and `Federalism` are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?

A

Keshavananda Bharati case

B

S.R. Bommai case

C

Indira Sawhney case

D

Minerva Mills case

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

In the S.R. Bommai Case v. Union of India (1994), Justice Sawant and Kuldip Singh observed that federalism and secularism was an essential feature of our Constitution and were a part of basic structure. In this case, the Supreme Court discussed at length provisions of Article 356 of the Constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

253. Who has became the first female judge to be a part of the Supreme court of India?

A

Meera Kumari

B

Sujata Mahonar

C

Fathima Beevi

D

Indira Banerjee

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Fathima Beevi (born 30 April 1927) is a former judge of the Supreme Court of India. Appointed to the apex Court in 1989, she became the first female judge to be a part of the Supreme court of India, and the first Muslim woman to be appointed to any of the higher judiciaries in country.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

254. Who is the Chairman of Niti Ayog?

A

President

B

Deputy Speaker

C

Vice President

D

Prime minister

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Hon ble Prime Minister and comprises Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

255. The phrase “equality before law” used in Article-14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from

A

USA

B

Britain

C

Germany

D

Greece

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The concept of “equality before the law” has been borrowed from the British Common Law upon which English Legal System was founded. However, “equal protection of laws” has its link with the American Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

256. Grassroots democracy is related to

A

Devolution of powers

B

Decentralisation of powers

C

Panchayati Raj System

D

All of the above

Polity SSC CAPF SI REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Grassroots democracy is a tendency towards designing political processes involving the common people as constituting a fundamental political and economic group. It focuses on people or society at a local level rather than at the center of major political activity. Devolution and decentralization of power and Panchayati raj system are essential elements of such a system.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

257. Loksabha Speaker submits his resignation to whom?

A

President

B

Deputy Speaker

C

Vice President

D

Prime minister

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Lok Sabha Speaker give the resignation to Deputy Speaker as per Article 94 (b) of Constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

258. Which of the following is the inalienable attribute of the parliamentary system of government ?

A

Flexibility of the Constitution

B

Fusion of Executive and Legislature

C

Judicial Supremacy

D

Parliamentary Sovereignty

Polity SSC CAPF SI REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

A parliamentary system is a system of democratic governance of a state in which the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from, and is held accountable to, the legislature (parliament). The executive and legislative branches are thus interconnected.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

259. The method of amending the Constitution by popular veto is found in

A

Britain

B

Switzerland

C

Russia

D

India

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Switzerland has made provisions for referendums or popular votes on laws and constitutional decrees or issues on which citizens are asked to approve or reject by a yes or a no. The Swiss Federal Constitution 1891 permits a certain number of citizens to make a request to amend a constitutional article, or even to introduce a new article into the constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

260. The concept of “Rule of Law” is a special feature of constitutional system of

A

British

B

France

C

USA

D

Switzerland

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Rule of Law is an aspect of the British Constitution that has been emphasised by A V Dicey and it, therefore, can be considered an important part of British Politics. It involves: the rights of individuals are determined by legal rules and not the arbitrary behaviour of authorities; there can be no punishment unless a court decides there has been a breach of law; and everyone, regardless of your position in society, is subject to the law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

261. The Constitution of India, describes India as

A

A Federation

B

A quasi-federal

C

Unitary

D

Union of states

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 1 in the Constitution states that India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. The territory of India shall consist of: The territories of the states, The Union territories and any territory that may be acquired.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

262. According to Constitution, Who has Executive Power of Union?

A

President

B

Prime Minister

C

Supreme Court

D

Loksabha

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Executive power of the Union is vested in the President, and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

263. When was the first Central Legislative Assembly constituted ?

A

1922

B

1923

C

1921

D

1920

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Central Legislative Assembly was a legislature for India created by the Government of India Act 1919 from the former Imperial Legislative Council, implementing the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. It was formed in 1920.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

264. The state operates through :

A

Political Party

B

Party President

C

Government

D

President

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

A government is the system by which a state or community is governed. It is the means by which state policy is enforced, as well as the mechanism for determining the policy of the state. A form of Government refers to the set of political systems and institutions that make up the organisation of a specific government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

265. Speaker of Loksabha is elected by whom?

A

Prime minister council

B

President

C

Supreme Court judges

D

Members of Loksabha

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Newly elected Members of Parliament from the Lok Sabha elect the Speaker among themselves. The Speaker should be someone who understands Lok Sabha functions and it should be someone accepted among the ruling and opposition parties. MPs propose a name to the Pro tem speaker.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

266. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution ?

A

The Preamble

B

Part III

C

Part IV

D

Part I

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is Declaration of Independence statement & a brief introductory that sets out the guiding principles & purpose of the document as well as Indian democracy. It describes the state as a “sovereign democratic republic”. The first part of the preamble “We, the people of India” and, its last part “give to ourselves this Constitution” clearly indicate the democratic spirit.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

267. Which is the most important system in Democracy ?

A

Social

B

Political

C

Economic

D

Governmental

Polity SSC Constable REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Democracy is a form of government in which all eligible citizens have an equal say in the decisions that affect their lives. Democracy allows eligible citizens to participate equally in creation of laws and enables the free and equal practice of political self determination. So the political aspect can be considered to the most important.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

268. In Which VETO, President can send back the bill for re-thinking?

A

Suspensive Veto

B

Absolute Veto

C

Pocket Veto

D

Only 2 & 3

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Suspense Veto also known as regular Veto is used by President to send back any bill for rethinking.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

269. Which of the following is an essential element of the state?

A

Sovereignty

B

Government

C

Terroritory

D

All of these

Polity SSC Constable REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The state has four essential elements: population, territory, government and sovereignty. Absence of any of these elements denies to it the status of statehood.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

270. Who is custodian of the Indian Constitution ?

A

President of India

B

Chief Justice of India

C

Prime Minister of India

D

Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constitution has made the Supreme Court as the custodian and protector of the Constitution. The Supreme Court decides disputes between the Centre and the Units as well as protects the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

271. Which of the following Judiciary has the power to issue Writ in Fundamental rights & Legal rights both?

A

Supreme Court

B

High Court

C

District Court

D

President House

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Supreme court can issue writ only in case of Fundamental rights while as High court can issue writ in both Fundamental and Legal Rights. It seems strange but Article 226 gives this power to High Court only and not to Supreme Court.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

272. Who described the Government of India Act, 1935 as a new charter of bondage ?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

Rajendra Prasad

C

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

D

B.R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

At the Faizpur Session of the Congress in December 1936, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, in his Presidential Address, referred to the Government of India Act 1935 as “The new Charter of Bondage” which was being imposed upon them despite complete rejection. He said that the Congress was going to the Legislatures to combat the Act and seek to end.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

273. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on :

A

Simon Commission

B

Lord Curzon Commission

C

Dimitrov Thesis

D

Lord Clive`s report

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The provincial part of the Government of India Act, 1935 basically followed the recommendations of the Simon Commission. Simon Commission had proposed almost fully responsible government in the provinces. Under the 1935 Act, provincial dyarchy was abolished; i.e. all provincial portfolios were to be placed in charge of ministers enjoying the support of the provincial legislatures.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

274. The state possesses

A

only external sovereignty

B

only internal sovereignty

C

both internal and external sovereignty

D

neither external nor internal sovereignty

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

At its core, sovereignty is typically taken to mean the possession of absolute authority within a bounded territorial space. There is essentially an internal and external dimension of sovereignty. Internally, a sovereign government is a fixed authority with a settled population that possesses a monopoly on the use of force. It is the supreme authority within its territory. Externally, sovereignty is the entry ticket into the society of states.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

275. Constitution of India came into force in

A

1951

B

1956

C

1950

D

1946

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Constitution of India was adopted by Constituent Assembly on November 26,1949 and came into force on January 26,1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

276. ‘If any Government violates the Directive Principles of State, Government will be responsible to Voters’ was the statement of whom?

A

C Rajgopalachari

B

Rajendra Prasad

C

G V Mavalankar

D

B R Ambedkar

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

B R Ambedkar has said these words.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

277. Which of the following emergency can be imposed till 3 years maximum?

A

Financial Emergency

B

National Emergency

C

State Emergency

D

All of Above

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

State Emergency (Presidential Rule) can be imposed upto three years. There is no limit for Financial and National Emergency.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

278. Which of following has the power to do amendment in Constitution firstly ?

A

Parliament

B

Supreme Court

C

President

D

Loksabha

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Part-xx Article 368 (1) of the Constitution of India grants constituent power to make formal amendments and empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision according to the procedure laid down therein, which is different from the procedure for ordinary legislation.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

279. In which year Panchayati Raj System inaugurated?

A

1955

B

1956

C

1958

D

1959

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Th e system later came to be known as Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour in Rajasthan.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

280. Indian Constitution is :

A

Federal

B

Quasi Federal

C

Unitary

D

Presidential

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Indian constitution which envisages parliamentary form of government is federal in structure with unitary features. Thus, it is quasi-federal.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

281. What is the basis of classification of governments as unitary and federal?

A

Relationship between legislature and executive

B

Relationship between executive and judiciary

C

Relationship between the States

D

Relationship between the Centre and States

Polity SSC FCI REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

On the basis of relationship between the centre and the units, the governments may be classified as unitary and federal. In a unitary government, all the powers of government are vested in the central government whereas in a federal government, the powers of government are divided between the centre and the units.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

282. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution ?

A

Parliamentary form of Government

B

Independence of Judiciary

C

Pesidential form of Government

D

Federal Government

Polity SSC 10+2 REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Presidential Form of Government is not a feature of Indian Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

283. The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the

A

Preamble

B

Fundamental Duties

C

Fundamental Rights

D

Directive Principles of State Policy

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The mind and ideals of the framers of the Constitution are reflected in the Preamble.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

284. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of

A

USA

B

Canada

C

Germany

D

Australia

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Constitution of India borrowed the following features from Australia: concurrent list; language of the preamble; and provisions regarding trade, commerce and intercourse.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

285. Who is considered the Architect of the Indian Constitution ?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

B.R. Ambedkar

C

Jawahar Lal Nehru

D

B.N. Rao

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

B. R. Ambedkar was the chief architect of the Indian Consti-tution. Granville Austin has described the Indian Constitution drafted by Ambedkar as first and foremost a social document.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

286. The concept of Sovereign Parliament originated in :

A

England

B

India

C

France

D

Japan

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The concept of Parliamentary sovereignty holds that the legislative body may change or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it is not bound by written law (in some cases, even a constitution) or by precedent. It is a principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Generally, the courts cannot overrule its legislation and no Parliament can pass laws that future Parliaments cannot change.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

287. Which one of the following is not an element of the State ?

A

Popluation

B

Land

C

Army

D

Government

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The state has four essential elements. These are: (1) population, (2) territory (land), (3) government, (4) sovereignty (or independence). The first two elements constitute the physical or material basis of the state while the last two form its political and spiritual basis. In modern times relations among nations have grown and many international organizations and institutions have come into being. Therefore some scholars have argued that international recognition be an essential element of state.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

288. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages ?

A

Greater adaptability

B

Strong State

C

Greater participation by the people

D

Lesser Chances of authoritarianism

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

A unitary system of government, or unitary state, is a sovereign state governed as a single entity. The central government is supreme and any administrative divisions (sub-national units) exercise only powers that their central government chooses to delegate. Lower-level governments, if they exist at all, do nothing but implement the policies of the national government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

289. January 26 selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because

A

it was considered to be an auspicious day

B

on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942

C

the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930

D

none of these

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Indian constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on the 26th November, 1949 and it came into force after two months on 26th January, 1950. The day January 26 was chosen because it was this very day when the Poorna Swaraj resolution was made in Lahore in 1930 and the first tricolor of India unfurled.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

290. What is meant when the Constitution declares India a “Secular State” ?

A

Religious worship is not allowed

B

Religions are patronised by the State

C

The state regards religions as a private affairs of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis

D

none of these

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Secularism is the principle of separation of government institutions, and the persons mandated to represent the State, from religious institutions and religious dignitaries. India is a secular country as per the declaration in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution. It prohibits discrimination against members of a particular religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Every person has the right to preach, practice and propagate any religion they choose. The government must not favour or discriminate against any religion. It must treat all religions with equal respect. All citizens, irrespective of their religious beliefs are equal in front of law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

291. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?

A

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B

C. Rajagopalchari

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Jawaharlal Nehru

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected president of the Constituent Assembly while B.R. Ambedkar was appointed the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

292. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

A

Dr. Br. Ambedkar

B

Jawaharlal Nehru

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Shri K. M. Munshi

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of Constituent Assembly on 11 December, 1946. On January 26, 1950, the Constitution of independent India was ratified.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

293. In India legal sovereignty is vested with

A

the President

B

the Judiciary

C

the Cabinet

D

the Constitution

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Legal sovereignty represents the lawyer`s conception of sovereignty. It is associated with the supreme law-making authority in the state. The body which has the power to issue final commands in the form of laws is the legal sovereign in a state. This power may be vested in one person or a body of persons. It may be a king or dictator or parliament. Legal sovereignty is organized and re-organized by constitutional law.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

294. Direct Democracy is a system of Government in which

A

People does not choose the Civil Servants

B

People directly elect their representatives

C

People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country.

D

Government officials consult people on various appointments

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Direct democracy or pure democracy is a form of democracy in which people decide on policy initiatives directly. This differs from the majority of currently established democracies, which are representative democracies.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

295. Cabinet system and Collective responsibility are the contributions of

A

Ireland

B

United States

C

India

D

Britain

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Cabinet system and its collective responsibility is constitutional convention in governments using the Westminster System that members of the Cabinet must publicly support all govern-mental decisions made in Cabinet, even if they do not privately agree with them. This support includes voting for the government in the legislature. In the United Kingdom, the doctrine applies to all members of the government, from members of the cabinet down to Parliamentary Private Secretaries.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

296. The two basic principles of the liberal theory of democracy as emphasized by John Locke, are

A

Universal Adult Franchise and the Right to Property

B

Representative Democracy and Workers Rights

C

Popular Sovereignty and constitutional government

D

Women suffrage and popular sovereignty

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

John Locke`s "Two Treatises on Government" of 1689 established two fundamental liberal ideas: economic liberty (meaning the right to have and use property) and intellectual liberty (including freedom of conscience). According to Locke, the individual was naturally free and only became a political subject out of free choice. Without the consent of the people there could not be formed a civil society/ community. Secondly, Locke emphasized that all men were equal. There was a perfect state of equality with all the power being reciprocal and no one having more than the other. This is a fundamental principle of present day democracy. From it, flows the democratic principle of universal participation. That no man shall be excluded from the political process.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

297. The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the

A

Simon Commission proposals

B

Cripps proposals

C

Mountbatten plan

D

Cabinet Mission plan

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly was set up while India was still under British rule, following negotiations between Indian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India from the United Kingdom.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

298. “Persons may change but rules should not change” is the principle of

A

Absolute Monarchy

B

Constitutional Government

C

Unwritten Constitution

D

Republic

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. Persons do not call the shots or frame rules in such governments. Everything that is to be governed is dictated by set of rules enshrined in the constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

299. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?

A

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C

Dr. B.N. Rau

D

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Polity SSC Combined Matric Level REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first president (temporary chairman) of the Constituent Assembly when it met on December 9, 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then became the President of the Constituent Assembly, and would later become the first President of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

300. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was

A

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C

Mahatma Gandhi

D

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

On the 14 August, 1947 meeting of the Assembly, a proposal for forming various committees was presented. Such committees included a Committee on Fundamental Rights, the Union Powers Committee and Union Constitution Committee. On 29 August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed, with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advisor.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

301. The provisional President of the Constituent Assembly was

A

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

D

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Dr. Sachidanand Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected president of the Constituent Assembly while B.R. Ambedkar was appointed the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

302. The concept of Constitution first originated in

A

Switzerland

B

Britain

C

U.S.A

D

Japan

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

England is treated as the place where the constitutional concept germinated, though the ancient Greek and Roman Republics, too, had such a facility. In England, Henry I`s proclamation of the Charter of Liberties in 1100 bound the king for the first time in his treatment of the clergy and the nobility. This idea was extended and refined by the English barony when they forced King John to sign Magna Carta in 1215. The most important single article of the Magna Carta, related to "habeas corpus", provided that the king was not permitted to imprison, outlaw, exile or kill anyone at a whim—there must be due process of law first.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

303. The Constitution of India describes the country as a

A

Union of States

B

Federation

C

Unitary State

D

Confederation

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Part I of the Constitution of India describes the nation that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. It also mentions that the states and the territories shall be specified in the First Schedule.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

304. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?

A

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C

Jawahar Lal Nehru

D

Vallabh Bhai Patel

Polity FCI Assistant Grade-III REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. Following India’s independence from Great Britain, its members served as the nation’s first Parliament. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was the first president (temporary chairman) of the Constituent Assembly when it met on December 9, 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then became the President of the Constituent Assembly, and would later become the first President of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

305. The method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from

A

USA

B

UK

C

USSR

D

France

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Indian Constitution has borrowed some features from the U.S Constitution. Those features are: fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, The Indian Constitution has borrowed some features from the U.S Constitution. Those features are: fundamental rights, independence of judiciary.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

306. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

A

Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B

Sardar Patel

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The first temporary 2-day president of the Constituent Assembly was Dr Sachidanand Sinha. Later, Rajendra Prasad was elected president of the Constituent Assembly.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

307. The Drafting of the Constitution was completed on :

A

26th January, 1950

B

26th December, 1949

C

26th November, 1949

D

30th November, 1949

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

A Draft Constitution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947. Draft constitution was debated and over 2000 amendments were moved over a period of two years. Finally on 26 November, 1949, the process was completed and Constituent assembly adopted the constitution. 284 members signed the document and the process of constitution making was complete.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

308. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from

A

England

B

USA

C

Canada

D

France

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Indian Constitution borrowed such features as parliamentary form of government, introduction of Speaker and his role, the concept of single citizenship, the Rule of law, procedure of lawmaking, etc from England. The Indian citizenship and nationality law and the Constitution of India provide single citizenship for all of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

309. Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution ?

A

Right to Equality

B

Right against Exploitation

C

Right to Constitutional Remedies

D

Right to Freedom of Religion

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Dr. B R Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting committee, called the fundamental right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the Indian constitution. Right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

310. The two forms of democracy are

A

Parliamentary and Presidential

B

Direct and Indirect

C

Monarchical and Republican

D

Parliamentary and King

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Parliamentary democracy is a representative democracy where government is appointed by representatives as opposed to a ‘presidential rule’ wherein the President is both head of state and the head of government and is elected by the voters. Under a parliamentary democracy, government is exercised by delegation to an executive ministry and subject to ongoing review, checks and balances by the legislative parliament elected by the people. Presidential Democracy is a system where the public elects the president through free and fair elections. The president serves as both the head of state and head of government controlling most of the executive powers. The president serves for a specific term and cannot exceed that amount of time.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

311. The term “Greater India” denotes

A

Political unity

B

Cultural unity

C

Religious unity

D

Social unity

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Greater India was the historical extent of the culture of India beyond the Indian subcontinent. This particularly concerns the spread of Hinduism in Southeast Asia, introduced by the Indianized kingdoms of the 5th to 15th centuries, but may also refer to the spread of Buddhism from India to Central Asia and China by the Silk Road during the early centuries of the Common Era. To the west, Greater India overlaps with Greater Persia in the Hindu Kush and Pamir mountains. The term is tied to the geographic uncertainties surrounding the “Indies” during the Age of Exploration.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

312. The term ‘Caste’ was derived from

A

Portuguese

B

Dutch

C

German

D

English

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The English word “caste” derives from the Spanish and Portuguese casta, which the Oxford English Dictionary quotes John Minsheu’s Spanish dictionary (1599) to mean, “race, lineage, or breed.” When the Spanish colonized the New World, they used the word to mean a “clan or lineage.” However, it was the Portuguese who employed casta in the primary modern sense when they applied it to the many inmarrying hereditary Hindu social groups they encountered upon their arrival in India in 1498. The use of the spelling “caste,” with this latter meaning, is first attested to in English in 1613.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

313. The Constitution of India came into force on

A

26 January, 1950

B

26 January, 1952

C

15 August, 1948

D

26 November, 1949

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

India is governed in terms of the Constitution of India which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into force on 26th January 1950.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

314. Written in highly Sanskritised (Tatsama) Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed and scored by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore. It was first sung in Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress on .

A

24th January, 1950 in Allahabad

B

24th January, 1950 in Delhi

C

26th December, 1942 in Calcutta

D

27th December, 1911 in Calcutta

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Written in highly Sanskritised (Tatsama) Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a Brahmo hymn composed and scored by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore. It was first sung in Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress on 27 December, 1911.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

315. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the

A

Act of 1861

B

Act of 1909

C

Act of 1919

D

Act of 1935

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the establishment of a “Federation of India”, to be made up of both British India and some or all of the “princely states”. The parts of the Act intended to establish the Federation of India never came into operation, due to opposition from rulers of the princely states. It also provided for the establishment of a Federal Court.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

316. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution ?

A

395

B

396

C

398

D

399

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

It is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world, containing 448 articles in 22 parts, 12 schedules and 100 amendments. Although the last article of the Constitution is Article 395, the total number, as of March 2012 is 448. New articles added through amendments have been inserted in the relevant location in the original constitution. In order not to disturb the original numbering, the new articles are inserted with alphanumberic enumerations. For example, Article 21A pertaining to Right to Education was inserted by the 86th Amendment Act.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

317. Indian Penal Code came into operation in

A

1858

B

1860

C

1859

D

1862

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Indian Penal Code is the main criminal code of India. It is a comprehensive code, intended to cover all substantive aspects of criminal law. It was drafted in 1860 and came into force in colonial India during the British Raj in 1862. It has since been amended several times and is now supplemented by other criminal provisions.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

318. The convention that “once a speaker always a speaker” is followed in

A

UK

B

USA

C

France

D

India

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The British Speaker is elected at the beginning of the Parliament by and from among the members of the House of Commons. If the Speaker of outgoing Parliament is still a member of the house and is willing to be re-elected, he can do so. usually, he is reelected as many times as he wants. A change of party does not make any difference. He is elected unanimously by the house. So in Great Britain there goes a saying, “Once a speaker always a speaker.”

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

319. Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India ?

A

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B

Jawaharlal Nehru

C

M.A. Jinnah

D

Lal Bahadur Shastri

Polity SSC Tax Assistant REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of Constituent Assembly on 11 December, 1946. On January 26, 1950, the Constitution of independent India was ratified and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the nation’s first President. He served as the President of constituent assembly.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

320. The constitution of India describes India as

A

A Union of States

B

Quasi-federal

C

A federation of state and union territories

D

A Unitary State

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

321. Which of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation ?

A

A single citizenship

B

Dual judiciary

C

Three Lists in the Constitution

D

A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

According to the Constitution of India, the role of the Supreme Court is that of a federal court and guardian of the Constitution. The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, with original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was established.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

322. The Constitution of India was adopted on

A

26 January, 1950

B

26 January, 1949

C

26 November, 1949

D

31 December, 1949

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Constitution was enacted/adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and came into effect on 26 January 1950. The date 26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of independence of 1930. With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

323. Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?

A

U.S.A

B

UK

C

Pakistan

D

India

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

An uncodified or unwritten constitution is a type of constitution where the fundamental rules of government take the form of customs, usage, precedent and a variety of statutes and legal instruments. Current example of such a constitution is United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland where there is no defining document that can be termed “the constitution”. Because the political system evolved over time, rather than being changed suddenly in an event such as a revolution, it is continuously being defined by acts of Parliament and decisions of the Law Courts.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

324. Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as Sarva Dharma Samabhav?

A

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

B

Dr. Zakir Hussain

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Gaini Zail Singh

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The slogan “Sarva Dharma Sama Bhava” was coined by Mahatma Gandhi in pursuit of his dream of HinduMuslim unity. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as Sarva Dharma Samabhav.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

325. Which of the following countries has introduced “direct democracy”?

A

Russia

B

India

C

France

D

Switzerland

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Direct democracy is a form of democracy in which people vote on policy initiatives directly, as opposed to a representative democracy in which people vote for representatives who then vote on policy initiatives. Many countries that are representative democracies allow for three forms of political action that provide limited direct democracy: referendum (plebiscite), initiative, and recall. Referendums can include the ability to hold a binding vote on whether a given law should be rejected. This effectively grants the populace which holds suffrage a veto on a law adopted by the elected legislature (one nation to use this system is Switzerland).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

326. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India ?

A

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

C

Sir B.N. Rao

D

Shri K.M. Munshi

Polity SSC CPO Sub-Inspector REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Benegal Narsing Rau was an Indian bureaucrat, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He was also India’s representative to the United Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952. B.N. Rau was appointed as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly in formulating the Indian Constitution. He was responsible for the general structure of the its democratic framework of the Constitution and prepared its original draft. The President of the Constituent Assembly Dr. Rajendra Prasad, before signing the Constitution on 26 November, 1949, thanked Rau for having ‘worked honorarily all the time that he was here, assisting the assembly not only with his knowledge and erudition but also enabled the other members to perform their duties with thoroughness and intelligence by supplying them with the material on which they could work.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

327. India is a republic because_____

A

it is democratic country

B

It is a parliamentary democracy

C

the head of the state is elected for a definite period

D

All of these

Polity SSC Statistical Investigators REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

India is a republic because India elects its supreme head. It is called a republic because of the applicable definition of a republic: a form of government in which representatives are entitled to act on behalf of the people whom they represent.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

328. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution ?

A

J. B. Kripalani

B

Rajendra Prasad

C

J. L. Nehru

D

B. R. Ambedkar

Polity SSC Statistical Investigators REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

On 29 August, 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed, with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advisor. These members were Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi (K M Munshi, Ex- Home Minister, Bombay), Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer (ExAdvocate General, Madras State), N Gopalaswami Ayengar (Ex-Prime Minister, J&K and later member of Nehru Cabinet), B L Mitter (Ex-Advocate General, India), Md. Saadullah (Ex- Chief Minister of Assam, Muslim League member) and D P Khaitan (Scion of Khaitan Business family and a renowned lawyer). The constitutional advisor was Sir Benegal Narsing Rau (who became First Indian Judge in International Court of Justice, 1950–54).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

329. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946 ?

A

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B

K M Munshi

C

Mahatma Gandhi

D

Abul Kalam Azad

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. Some of its prominent members were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Acharya J.B. Kriplani, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Smt. Sarojini Naidu, Shri Hare-Krushna Mahatab, Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Shri Sarat Chandra Bose, Shri C. Rajagopalachari and Shri M. Asaf Ali.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

330. From the Constitution of which country the provision of Federation was borrowed while framing the Constitution of India ?

A

USA

B

UK

C

Canada

D

Switzerland

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Though the basic features of Indian Constitution are based on the Government of India Act, 1935, it has many features which were borrowed from many foreign constitutions. It was from the Canadian Constitution that India borrowed a quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government) and the idea of Residual Powers.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

331. What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly of India ?

A

The Resolution of the Indian National Congress

B

The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

C

The Indian Independence Act, 1947

D

The resolutions of the Provincial/State Legislatures of the Dominion of India

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. The Constituent Assembly was set up while India was still under British rule, following negotiations between Indian leaders and members of the 1946 Cabinet Mission to India from the United Kingdom. The Assembly members were elected to it indirectly by the members of the individual provincial legislative assemblies, and initially included representatives for those provinces which came to form part of Pakistan, some of which are now within Bangladesh

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

332. Preventive detention means–

A

detention for interrogation

B

detention after interrogation

C

detention without interrogation

D

detention for cognisable offence

Polity SSC Section Officer REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Preventive detention is an imprisonment that is putatively justified for non-punitive purposes. In contrast to this, under preventive detention the government can imprison a person for some time without a criminal charge. It means that if the government feels that a person being at liberty can be a threat to the law and order or the unity and integrity of the nation, it can detain or arrest that person to prevent him from doing this possible harm.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

333. The system of judicial review originated in:

A

India

B

Germany

C

Russia

D

U.S.A

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Judicial review is the doctrine under which legislative and executive actions are subject to review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary. It is an example of the separation of powers in a modern governmental system (where the judiciary is one of three branches of government). Is is one of the main characteristics of government in the Republic of the United States. In the United States, federal and state courts (at all levels, both appellate and trial) are able to review and declare the “constitutionality”, or agreement with the Constitution (or lack there of) of legislation that is relevant to any case properly within their jurisdiction. In American legal language, “judicial review” refers primarily to the adjudication of constitutionality of statutes, especially by the Supreme Court of the United States.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

334. How does the Constitution of India describe India as?

A

A federation of States and Union Territories

B

A Union of States

C

Bharatvarsh

D

A federated nation

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document. The Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens of justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity among them.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

335. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?

A

British Constitution

B

US Constitution

C

Irish Constitution

D

The Government of India Act, 1935

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The most profound influence was exercised by the Government of India Act of 1935. Such features as the federal scheme, office of governor, power of federal judiciary, emergency powers etc were drawn from this Act. The British practice influenced the lawmaking procedures, rule of law, system of single citizenship, besides, of course, the model of a parliamentary government. The US Constitution inspired details on the independence of judiciary, judicial review, fundamental rights, and the removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges. The Irish Constitution was the source of the Directive Principles, method of Presidential elections, and the nomination of members of Rajya Sabha by the President

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

336. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the :

A

Act of 1909

B

Act of 1919

C

Act of 1935

D

Act of 1947

Polity SSC CGL REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Government of India Act 1935, the voluminous and final constitutional effort at governing British India, articulated three major goals: establishing a loose federal structure, achieving provincial autonomy, and safeguarding minority interests through separate electorates. The federal provisions, intended to unite princely states and British India at the centre, were not implemented because of ambiguities in safeguarding the existing privileges of princes. In February 1937, however, provincial autonomy became a reality when elections were held.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

337. How many members can be nominated by President in Rajyasabha?

A

12 Members

B

20 Members

C

02 Members

D

21 Members

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service;

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

338. Which article says “There shall be a Parliament “ of India?

A

Article 55

B

Article 88

C

Article 71

D

Article 79

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 79 states that There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consists of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

339. In which year Goa has become the Proper state of India ?

A

1987

B

1976

C

1961

D

1960

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Goa becomes 25th State of India: The capital is Panaji (Panjim), on the north-central coast of the mainland district. Formerly a Portuguese possession, it became a part of India in 1962 and attained statehood in 1987.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

340. States were established on the basis of Language in which year?

A

1951

B

1956

C

1976

D

1996

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries of Indias states and territories, organising them along linguistic lines.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

341. Which article says “There shall be a Council of Minister with the Prime Minister” ?

A

Article 68

B

Article 74

C

Article 61

D

Article 100

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 74(1) stated that"there shall be a council of minister with the prime minister of the head to aid ad advice the president".

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

342. Which State firstly established Panchayati Raj System?

A

Gujrat

B

Uttar Pradesh

C

Rajasthan

D

Madhya Pradesh

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Th e system later came to be known as Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour in Rajasthan.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

343. Who is known as the Parent of State?

A

Chief Minister

B

President

C

Chief justice of High Court

D

Governor

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

President in Centre and Governor in State

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

344. Which Committee recommended the Establishment of Panchayti Raj System?

A

Kiran Silva Committee

B

Khattar Committee

C

Drafting Committee

D

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was a committee originally appointed by the Government of India in January 16, 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952,Oct 2nd) and the National Extension Service (1953 Oct 2nd) and to suggest measures for their better working.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

345. There are how many pages in Indian Constitution?

A

178 Pages

B

560 Pages

C

345 Pages

D

232 Pages

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

232 pages containing 395 articles and 12 schedules, as well as numerous amendments, for a total of 117,369 words in the English language version. Pages can vary according to the font of your copy of the constitution but there are 345 articles and 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

346. Which article says about “Protection and improvement of environment, wild life and forests?

A

Article 46

B

Article 48 A

C

Article 52A

D

Article 49

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

It is now enshrined in Article 48 A of the Constitution that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife. It is part of fundamental duties.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

347. To adjudicate disputes between the centre and states come under which Jurisdiction of Supreme Court?

A

Original jurisdiction

B

Appellate jurisdiction

C

Writ Jurisdiction

D

Advisory jurisdiction

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Under Original Jurisdiction. By default cases which directly goes to supreme court came under Original Jurisdiction.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

348. Who has the power to adjudicate disputes between the centre and states ?

A

President

B

Supreme Court

C

Governor

D

Parliament

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Supreme Court of India decides disputes between the Centre and the States

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

349. What is Article 280?

A

Election Commission

B

UPSC

C

Attorney General of India

D

None of Above

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

350. Which of the following Writ is associated in order to arrest with in 24 hours?

A

Qua Warranto

B

Mandamus

C

Writ of Certiorari

D

Hebes Corpus

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

A writ requiring a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court, especially to secure the persons release unless lawful grounds are shown for their detention.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

351. TO become the civilian of Jammu & Kashmir you have to live in J&K for ________

A

20 Years

B

3 years / 7 Years

C

15 Years/ 7 Years

D

10 Years

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

If you are residing in JK from last 15 years, you will be considered civilian of JK. In case you have passed 10th and 12th examination from JK then you are eligible for citizenship only after 07 years

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

352. Do UTs send their representator to Rajyasabha?

A

No

B

Yes

C

Some Times

D

In Every Two Years

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Likewise states UT also send their representator to Rajyasabha.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

353. Rajya Sabha was established on which date?

A

3 July 1956 1 January 1948

B

3 April 1952

C

10 January 1950

D

1 January 1948

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

As per the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha was first constituted 3 April 1952.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

354. Which of the following has the Power to change State’s Border or establish new state?

A

President

B

Supreme Court

C

Governor

D

Parliament

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article-3, under Part-I of Constitution authorizes Parliament to form new states, increase or decrease the area of states. Parliament can also alter the boundary of states and change the name of any state by passing a law with simple majority in both the houses of parliament.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

355. By which amendment, Delhi was designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?

A

47th amendment

B

50th amendment

C

69th amendment

D

75th amendment

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

69th Amendment Act, 1992 It added two new Articles 239AA and 239AB under which the Union Territory of Delhi has been given a special status. Article 239AA provides that the Union Territory of Delhi be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi and its administrator shall be known as Lt.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

356. Which Indian President has been elected by Second Preference Election Provision?

A

V. V. Giri

B

Pratibha Patil

C

K R Narayanan

D

Gyani Zail Sing

POLITY 100 BEST POLITY QUESTIONS REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Varahagiri Venkata Giri "10 August 1894 – 24 June 1980" was the fourth president of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974. He was the only president to be elected as an independent candidate. He was succeeded by Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed as president in 1974.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

357. What does the term "Halqa Majlis" in the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, refers to?

A

Government Officers of Halqa Panchayat

B

Police of Halqa Panchayat

C

Journalists of Halqa Panchayat

D

The Voters of Halqa Panchayat

Panchayati Raj Act Health Educator set 1 REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

“Halqa Majlis” means all voters of a Halqa Panchayat; (l) “Halqa Panchayat” means a Halqa Panchayat constituted under section 4 of this Act; (m) “Naib-Sarpanch” means the Naib-Sarpanch of the Halqa Panchayat; (n) “Paanch” means member of Halqa Panchayat whether elected or nominated under this.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

358. Which of the following is dealt under Article 325 of Indian Constitution:

A

Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters

B

Elections to the House of the people

C

No discrimination on the grounds of religion , race caste or sex

D

Power of Parliament to make provisions for elections to Legislatures

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on ground of religion, race, caste or sex.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

359. Based on whose recommendations Fundamental Duties were included in the Indian Constitution?

A

Swaran Singh Committee

B

Kher Cmmittee

C

Pant Committee

D

Amitabh Kant Committee

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the Government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

360. From Which fund the salaries and other expenses of Supreme Court are drawn:

A

Public Accounts

B

Grants

C

Consolidated Funds

D

Emergency Funds

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Supreme court judges are entitled to salary and allowances during the term of their office and pension after their retirement. These are determined by the Parliament and charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

361. Which Article empow ers the Supreme Court to review any judgement pronounced or made it by earlier:

A

Article 137

B

Article 138

C

Article 139

D

Article 139 A

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 137 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

362. Which article of Indian Constitution provides "right to minorities" to establish Educational Institutions:

A

Article 29

B

Article 30

C

Article 31

D

Article 31 A

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 30 , It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

363. Which Article of Indian constitution empowers the Parliament to make provisions for elections to legislatures:

A

Article 324

B

Article 325

C

Article 327

D

Article 329

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 327 states that the empowers of the parliament to make provisions for elections to legislatures.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

364. Which of the following falls under state list:

A

Bankruptcy and Insolvency

B

Public Health and Sanitation, Hospitals and Dispensaries

C

Insurance

D

Population control and family planning

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Public Health and Sanitation, Hospitals and Dispensaries comes under sanitation list.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

365. Which schedule of Indian Constitution deals with Centre -state Concurrent list:

A

Sixth Schedule

B

Seventh Schedule

C

Eighth Schedule

D

Ninth Schedule

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

366. Which of the Following Articles of Indian Constitution deals with the rights of Citizenship of persons who migrated to India to Pakistan

A

Article 5

B

Article 6

C

Article 8

D

Article 9

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article Six: Rights of Citizenship of Certain Persons who have Migrated to India Territory from Territory of Pakistan. The sixth citizenship article of the Indian constitution provides citizenship rights to migrants from Pakistan to India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

367. Which age group has right to Education according to Article 21A of the Indian Constitution:

A

3 to 16 Years

B

4 to 14 years

C

5 to 13 Years

D

6 to 14 Years

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

368. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the fundamental duties :

A

Part 3

B

Part 4

C

Part 4A

D

Part 5

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

369. From which date did Article 370 become operative:

A

01 March 1948

B

05 September 1950

C

17 November 1952

D

25 December 1954

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

3 November 1952 became operative as Article 370

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

370. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution deals with the right to freedom of religion:

A

Article 14 to 18

B

Article 19 to 22

C

Article 23 to 24

D

Article 25 to 28

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

371. Article 370 of Indian Constitution is related to which of the following states:

A

Assam

B

Meghalaya

C

J&K

D

Mizoram

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 370 of the Constitution of India is described as a “temporary provision” that grants the state of Jammu and Kashmir a special autonomous status within the Indian union. On 5 August 2019, the Parliament of India voted in favour of a resolution tabled by Home Minister Amit Shah to revoke the special status, or autonomy, granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir—a region administered by India as a state which consists of the larger part of Kashmir

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

372. The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Indian Constitution in the year:

A

1948

B

1949

C

1950

D

1951

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The commission was established in 1950 and originally only had a Chief Election Commissioner. Two additional Commissioners were appointed to the commission for the first time on 16 October 1989 (on the eve of the 1989 General Election), but they had a very short tenure, ending on 1 January 1990.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

373. To protect the sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is established under which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution:

A

Fundamental Rights

B

Fundamental Duties

C

Directive Principles of State Policy

D

Preamble of Constituion

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

"To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India" is a provision mentioned in Article 51-A of the Constitution i.e Fundamental Duties.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

374. Code of Criminal Procedure falls in which of the following lists:

A

Union List

B

State List

C

Concurrence List

D

Not related to Constitution

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items (though the last subjects is numbered 47) given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

375. Which Government of India (GOI) Act was referred under article 6 of Indian Constitution:

A

GOI Act 1848

B

GOI Act 1909

C

GOI Act 1819

D

GOI Act 1935

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 6 Constitution of India: Rights of citizenship of certain persons.................defined in the Government of India Act, 1935.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

376. What is the age of retirement of Supreme Court Judges?

A

55

B

65

C

60

D

no age limit

Constitution of India Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

At present, the retirement age is 65 years for Supreme Court judges and 62 years for high court judges.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

377. Normally, the Parliament can legislate on subjects enumerated in the

A

Union List

B

State List

C

Financial List

D

Both Union and State List

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

#

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

378. Which part of the indian constitution enshrines the idea of welfare state?

A

Preamble

B

Fundamental Rights

C

Directive Principles of State Policy

D

Fundamental Duties

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Directive Principles of State Policy

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

379. The vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

A

Members of the both the Houses of Parliament

B

Members of Rajya Sabha only

C

Members of Lok Sabha only

D

Members of the both the Houses of Parliament and the members of Legislative Assemblies of all the states

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both the Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is, however, elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst themselves.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

380. The provision of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution have been made in order to

A

Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

B

Protect the interests of Minority communities

C

Protect the interests of scheduled castes

D

Protect the interests of women and children

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

381. The provision of indian constitution that most clearly expresses the power of Judicial review is

A

Article 21

B

Article 14

C

Article 24

D

Article 32

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 32 and Article 226.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

382. An emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution can be declared only during

A

Failure of constitutional machinery in a state

B

Financial instability

C

War, external aggression or internal disturbance

D

War, external aggression or armed rebellion

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

After 44th amendment act 1978, National Emergency can only be declared on grounds of "External aggression or war", also called as External Emergency & on the ground of "armed rebellion", also called as Internal Emergency.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

383. The ideas of liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the preamble of the constitution of india were inspired by

A

The French Revolution

B

The Chinese Revolution

C

The Russian Revolution

D

The American Declaration of Independence

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The concept of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in our Preamble was adopted from the French Motto of the French Revolution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

384. The civil Disobedience Movement in India was in the year

A

1920

B

1930

C

1922

D

1942

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

On March 12, 1930, Indian independence leader Mohandas Gandhi begins a defiant march to the sea in protest of the British monopoly on salt, his boldest act of civil disobedience yet against British rule in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

385. Which of the following committees recommended constitutional status for local bodies?

A

B R Mehta Committee

B

L M Singhvi Committee

C

Ashok Mehta Committee

D

Swaran Singh Committee

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

L M Singhvi Committee

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

386. The Indian Parliament is composed of three parts. First being President, What are the other two?

A

Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition

B

Chief Justice, Governor

C

Member of Parliament, Justice of High Courts

D

Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Parliament of India consists of the President and two Houses—the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

387. Election of the President is mentioned under which Article of Indian Constitution?

A

Article 52

B

Article 53

C

Article 54

D

Article 56

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 54 of Constitution of India "Election of President" The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

388. Where is the Headquarters of the SAARC Secretariat located?

A

Colombo

B

Peshawar

C

Kathmandu

D

Islamabad

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Headquarter of SAARC is in Kathmandu, Nepal. His Excellency Mr. Arjun Bahadur Thapa of Bhutan is the present Secretary General of the organization (From March 1, 2014 to present).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

389. According to Article 59 in the Constitution of India, the salary and allowances of the President are fixed by the

A

Attorney General

B

Parliament of India

C

Supreme Court of India

D

Chief Justice of India

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The President shall have an official residence and there shall be paid to the President such emoluments and allowances as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such emoluments and allowances as are specified in the Second Schedule.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

390. As per Indian Constitution, who among the following is empowered to remove the Judges of Supreme Court?

A

The Chief Justice of India

B

The Prime Minister on request from the Parliament

C

The President on request from the Parliament

D

The Chief Minister of any concerned state

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed only from the office by the President of India on the basis of a resolution passed by both the Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) with a majority of the total membership and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

391. How many votes does each member states have in the UN General Assembly?

A

1

B

2

C

7

D

10

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Each of the 193 Member States in the Assembly has one vote.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

392. According to Article 10 of Indian Constitution, who is authorized to make changes in continuance of the rights of citizenship?

A

President of India

B

Parliament

C

Supreme Court

D

State High Court

# Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing provisions of this Part shall, subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue to be such citizen.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

393. Where is the headquarters of International Monetary Fund located?

A

Washington D.C

B

Hague

C

Rome

D

New York

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a international financial institution, headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world while periodically depending on the World Bank for its resources. Formed in 1944, started in 27 December 1945, at the Bretton Woods Conference primarily by the ideas of Harry Dexter White and John Maynard Keynes.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

394. In which part of the constitution is state enjoined to establish Panchayat Raj Institutions?

A

Preamble

B

Directive Principles

C

Fundamental Rights

D

Fundamental Duties

General Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

In Directive Principles part of the Constitution Is the State enjoined to establish Panchayati Raj institutions.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

395. Which article of indian constitution empowers the parliament to make provisions for elections to legistatures?

A

Article 324

B

Article 325

C

Article 327

D

Article 329

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 327 states that the empowers of the parliament to make provisions for elections to legislatures.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

396. Which schedule of indian constitution deals with centre-state-concurrent list?

A

Sixth schedule

B

Seventh schedule

C

Eighth schedule

D

Ninth schedule

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

One such provision is the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. The Seventh Schedule contains a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Centre and the states, viz., List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

397. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of india is established under which of the following sections of the Indian Constitution?

A

Fundamental rights

B

Fundamental duties

C

Directive principles of state policy

D

Preamble of constituion

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Fundamental duties

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

398. Based on whose recommendations fundamental duties were included in the Indian Constituion?

A

Swaran Singh Committee

B

Kher Committee

C

Pant Committee

D

Amitabh Kant Committee

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the Government.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

399. Which of the following articles of indian constitution deals with the right to freedom of religion?

A

Articles 14 to 18

B

Articles 19 to 22

C

Articles 23 to 24

D

Articles 25 to 28

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

400. Which of the following is dealt under Article 325 of indian constitution?

A

Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters

B

Elections to the house of the people

C

No discrimination of the grounds of religion, race, caste or sex

D

Power of parliament to make provisions for elections to legislators

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on ground of religion, race, caste or sex.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

401. Which age group has Right to education according to article 21 A of indian constitution?

A

3 to 16 years

B

4 to 14 years

C

5 to 13 years

D

6 to 14 years

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

402. Which of the following articles of indian constitution deals with the rights of citizenship of persons who migrated to india from pakistan?

A

Article 5

B

Article 6

C

Article 8

D

Article 9

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 6: Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. ... Provided that no person shall be so registered unless he has been resident in the territory of India for at least six months immediately preceding the date of his application.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

403. Code of criminal procedure falls in which of the following lists?

A

Union List

B

State List

C

Concurrent List

D

Not related to constitution

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Criminal law and criminal procedure fall under the Concurrent List while matters relating to Police and Prisons fall under the State List. The laws that govern criminal law in India are the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) and the Criminal Procedure Code, 1974 (CrPC).

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

404. Article 370 of the indian constitution is related to which of the following states?

A

Assam

B

Meghalaya

C

Jammu and Kashmir

D

Mizoram

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Article 370 of the Indian constitution gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir — a state in India, located in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent, and a part of the larger region of Kashmir, which has been the subject of dispute between India, Pakistan and China.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

405. Which article empowers the supreme court of india to review any judgement pronounced or made by it earlier?

A

Article 137

B

Article 138

C

Article 139

D

Article 139A

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Article 137 empowers the Supreme Court to review any judgment pronounced or made, subject, of course, to the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any rule made under Article 145 of the Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

406. Which one of the following falls under the state list?

A

Bankruptcy and insolvency

B

Public health and sanitation, hospitals and dispensaries

C

Insurance

D

Population control and family planning

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Public health and sanitation, hospitals and dispensaries falls under state list

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

407. The election commission was established in accordance with the indian constitution in the year

A

1948

B

1949

C

1950

D

1951

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The commission was established in 1950 and originally only had a Chief Election Commissioner. Two additional Commissioners were appointed to the commission for the first time on 16 October 1989 (on the eve of the 1989 General Election), but they had a very short tenure, ending on 1 January 1990.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

408. Which article of the indian constitution deals with the, Continuance of the rights of citizenship?

A

Article 7

B

Article 8

C

Article 9

D

Article 10

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

Article 10: Continuance of the rights of citizenship.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

409. Which article of Indian Constitution provides, Right to Minorities to establish educational institutions?

A

Article 29

B

Article 30

C

Article 31

D

Article 31A

pol Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Article 30 Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
1. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
1A. In making any law providing for the compulsory acquisition of any property of an educational institution established and administered by a minority, referred to in clause (1), the State shall ensure that the amount fixed by or determined under such law for the acquisition of such property is such as would not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under that clause.
2. The State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

410. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?

A

Part 3

B

Part 4

C

Part 4A

D

Part 5

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

411. Act of 31st Dec, 2017, what is the age of retirement of Supreme Court judge?

A

55 years

B

65 years

C

60 years

D

No age limit

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

Act of 31st Dec, 2017, what is the age of retirement of Supreme Court judge?

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

412. From which fund the salaries and other expenses of the supreme court are drawn?

A

Public Accounts

B

Grants

C

Consolidated Funds

D

Emergency funds

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

The Supreme court judges are entitled to salary and allowances during the term of their office and pension after their retirement. These are determined by the Parliament and charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

413. According to Article 53 in the Constitution of India, the executive power of the Union shall be vested in

A

The President

B

The Prime Minister

C

The Chief Justice of India

D

The Council of Ministers

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

414. What is the meaning of the word Quorum?

A

Minimum numbers of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any type of business

B

Maximum number of members allowed in any given session, to enable it to transact for only foreign business

C

The discipline of maintaining the decorum in the House

D

Quorum means approval of the majority members present during the sitting

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

the minimum number of members of an assembly or society that must be present at any of its meetings to make the proceedings of that meeting valid.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

415. The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) consists of how many members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly?

A

51

B

53

C

54

D

59

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

It consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

416. Which of the following is NOT a function of the United Nation`s Security Council?

A

It maintains international peace and security

B

It elects the non-permanent members

C

It takes military action against an aggressor

D

It formulates plans for the establishment of a system to regulate armaments

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : B
Explanation :

The objectives of the United Nations are i) To maintain international peace and security ii) To develop friendly relations among nations iii) To create a healthy atmosphere for world peace by avoiding discrimination of strongest and weakest nations and increasing friendly relations, co-operation and co-ordination. iv) To be a centre for harmonising the actions of nations in the attainment of these common ends. Disarm, decolonise and develop are the three new objectives set by the UN.

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

417. In which part of the Constitution, India is declared as "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic?

A

Fundamental Rights

B

Directive Principles of State Policy

C

Preamble

D

Fundamental Duties

Polity Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : C
Explanation :

Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic. 3. The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

418. Under Sec 91 (2) of the Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir, 1956, the ordinance promulgated by the Governor of the State Shall be laid before the Houses of Legislature and shall cease to operate at the expiration of

A

One month from the re-assembly of the legislature

B

One week from the re-assembly of the legislature

C

Six months from the re-assembly of the legislature

D

Six weeks from the re-assembly of the legislature

JK Constitution Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : D
Explanation :

#

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

419. Which of the following is not a part of the Parliament of India?

A

Vidhan Sabha

B

Lok Sabha

C

Rajya Sabha

D

President

Parliament Political Science REPORT
Correct Answer : A
Explanation :

Vidhan Sabha is related to state assemblies.
lok sabha lower house parliamnet
rajya sabha upper house of parliament

Correct Answered :

Wrong Answered :

CONTACT US

  • J & K

  • admin@prepmart.in

    • QUICK LINKS

    LIKE AND SHARE YOUR EXPERIENCE

    Like Us on Facebook Join Us on Telegram
    VISITORS COUNT 9 2 2 4 9 2
    PrepMart 2022. All Rights Reserved | Terms & Conditions | Privacy Policy | Refund & Cancellation Policy
    Developed By : Azhar Rashid Teli